Urology Basic Science MCQ Solved Paper for SSC CGL

1. What are the first and second most common zones from where prostate cancers arise?
A. central then transitional
B. peripheral then transitional
C. peripheral then central
D. transitional then central
Answer : B

2. Which antibiotic is the best to treat soft tissue infection with methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) in hospitalized patients?
A. vancomycin
B. cefotaxime
C. penicillin G
D. tobramycin
Answer : A

3. Which of the following is NOT a part of the urogenital diaphragm structures?
A. perineal membrane
B. deep transverse perineal muscle
C. urethral sphincter
D. Camper`s fascia
Answer : D

4. Which type of urinary casts are solidified TammHorsfall mucoproteins secreted from the tubular epithelial cells of individual nephrons?
A. granular
B. hyaline
C. waxy
D. pigment
Answer : B

5. Renal blood flow is autoregulated by:
A. sympathetic nervous system
B. parasympathetic nervous system
C. urinary output
D. afferent arteriolar resistance
Answer : D

6. Which of the following does NOT affect serum creatinine?
A. gender
B. age
C. obstructing stone at left lower ureter
D. rhabdomyolysis
Answer : C

7. Where is Santorini plexus located?
A. at either side of the prostate
B. in the pubo-prostatic space
C. anterior to the seminal vesicles
D. posterior to the vaso-epididymal junction
Answer : B

8. What fascial layer(s) cover(s) the prostate?
A. Denonvilliers fascia
B. prostatic fascia
C. levator fascia
D. all of the above
Answer : D

9. What is the best initial therapy for hyponatremic dehydration?
A. administration of hypertonic saline
B. administration of crystalloid
C. administration of normal saline
D. administration of ringer lactate
Answer : C

10. In which condition can NOT creatinine level be 1200 mg/dL?
A. an aspirate of pelvic urinoma
B. in untreated end-stage renal failure disease
C. a sample from a wound drain after pyeloplasty
D. a sample from suprapubic catheter
Answer : B

11. Which zone of the prostate originates from the Wolffian duct tissue:
A. central zone
B. peripheral zone
C. transitional zone
D. periurethral glands
Answer : A

12. What is the narrowest part of the ureter?
A. uretero-pelvic junction
B. uretero-vesical junction
C. where ureters cross the pelvic brim
D. where ureters cross the common iliac bifurcation
Answer : B

13. What is the most significant innervation of the vas deferens?
A. sympathetic nervous system
B. parasympathetic nervous system
C. somatic nervous system
D. none of the above
Answer : A

14. Regarding multicystic kidneys, at what age does the compensatory renal growth end?
A. at birth
B. 2 years
C. at puberty
D. none of the above
Answer : B

15. Which innervations mediate detumescence?
A. cavernous nerves
B. dorsal nerves of the penis
C. sympathetic nervous system
D. parasympathetic nervous system
Answer : C

16. What antibiotic could result in red man syndrome?
A. vancomycin
B. clindamycin
C. streptomycin
D. tobramycin
Answer : A

17. What is the best method to evaluate calcium levels in the urine?
A. from early morning urine sample
B. comparing urine and serum calcium at a given time
C. performing 24 urine collection
D. from a mid-stream urine sample
Answer : C

18. What increases blood volume and pressure in corpora cavernosa during erection is:
A. increase in sympathetic discharge
B. contraction of ischiocavernosa and bulbocavernosa muscles
C. increase arterial flow and closure of emissary veins
D. shunting of blood from the dorsal to the central cavernosal artery
Answer : C

19. Which group(s) of lymph nodes drain(s) the glans penis?
A. internal and external iliac
B. superficial inguinal
C. deep inguinal
D. superficial and deep inguinal
Answer : A

20. How many days does spermatogenesis take in the man?
A. 16
B. 32
C. 64
D. 90
Answer : C

21. What are the posterior relations of the kidneys?
A. quadratus lumborum and diaphragm
B. psoas and diaphragm
C. psoas and latissimus dorsi
D. transversus abdominus and paraspinous
Answer : A

22. Which of the following conditions could result in white urine?
A. chyluria
B. bacteriuria
C. phosphaturia
D. all of th above
Answer : D

23. Hematuria of glomerular origin is associated with:
A. significant proteinuria, dysmorphic RBCs, RBC casts
B. glycosuria, eumorphic RBCs, WBC casts
C. hypercalciuria, eumorphic RBCs, granular casts
D. proteinuria, dysmorphic RBCs, hyaline casts
Answer : A

24. What is false concerning the urinary bladder anatomy?
A. as it distends, it peels off the peritoneum from the abdominal wall
B. the interureteric ridge is located between the 2 ureteric orifices and the uvula vesicae
C. Waldeyer`s sheath covers only the distal ureter and forms the deep trigone
D. in adults, it is percussible over the abdomen when contains at least 150 ml
Answer : B

25. Which statement is false concerning microhematuria?
A. malignancy is identified in patients presenting with microhematuria more than in patients presenting with gross hematuria
B. microscopic hematuria is defined as > 3 red blood cells per high powered field (RBC/hpf) on a single specimen
C. warrants full hematuria workup
D. history of cigarette smoking is of significance
Answer : A

26. Which layer lies between the superficial and deep inguinal lymph nodes?
A. Scarpa`s fascia
B. fascia lata
C. Dartos fascia
D. Camper`s fascia
Answer : B

27. What is the appropriate intravenous maintenance fluid for a 16 kg girl?
A. 43 ml/hr of normal saline
B. 78 ml/hr of ¼ normal saline
C. 69 ml/hr of ½ normal saline
D. 54 ml/hr of ¼ normal saline
Answer : D

28. What is the most significant complication of cyclosporine?
A. hepatic toxicity
B. renal toxicity
C. neural toxicity
D. cardiac toxicity
Answer : B

29. What is false about indinavir sulfate stones?
A. intratubular crystal formation might occur
B. CT cannot reliably confirm the presence of indinavir calculi
C. stone formation is demonstrated in 80% of patients taking the medication
D. is a protease inhibitor with poor solubility and significant urinary excretion
Answer : C

30. What helps in treating Candida albicans cystitis is:
A. sodium bicarbonate
B. phyto soya
C. ascorbic acid
D. sol palmetto
Answer : A

31. What is the most frequent anomaly associated with multicystic renal dysplasia?
A. ureteral atresia
B. vesicoureteral reflux
C. ureteropelvic junction obstruction
D. ureteral duplication
Answer : A

32. Which lab results indicate poor prognosis of male infertility?
A. azoospermia; normal FSH; increase LH
B. azoospermia; decrease FSH; normal LH
C. oligospermia; increase FSH; normal LH
D. oligospermia; normal FSH; decrease LH
Answer : C

33. Which of the following is NOT a side effect of hydrochlorothiazide?
A. hypercholesterolemia
B. hyperuricemia
C. hypoglycemia
D. hypercalcemia
Answer : C

34. What does apoptosis mean?
A. programmed cell death
B. new vascular formation
C. uninhibited neural stimulation
D. premature muscular contraction
Answer : A

35. Which statement is true about the female urethra?
A. harder to catheterize when compared to the male urethra
B. 4 inch long
C. opens into the vestibule below the clitoris
D. gets wider at the post-menopausal age
Answer : C

36. What causes Cushing`s disease is:
A. bilateral adrenal hyperplasia
B. pituitary over secretion of ACTH
C. exogenous administration of glucocorticoids
D. immune-mediated disease
Answer : B

37. Which organ contributes most to the seminal fluid volume?
A. testes
B. prostate
C. seminal vesicles
D. bulbourethral glands
Answer : C

38. Which of the following carries the greatest risk of HIV transmission to health care workers?
A. splash of patient`s blood to the eyes
B. splash of patient`s blood to the mouth
C. surgical suture needle stick
D. hollow bore needle stick
Answer : D

39. What is the prime effect of antidiuretic hormone on kidneys?
A. increase collecting duct permeability
B. increase medullary blood flow
C. decrease cortical blood flow
D. decrease potassium secretion
Answer : A

40. The epithelial component of the prostate consists of all of the following, EXCEPT:
A. basal cells
B. intermediate cells
C. tubulo-columnar cells
D. neuroendocrine cells
Answer : C

41. Which type of renal tubular acidosis (RTA) is more likely to form renal stones?
A. type 1
B. type 2
C. type 3
D. type 4
Answer : A

42. Which type of renal stone crystals is known as coffin lid?
A. oxalate
B. struvite
C. urate
D. cystine
Answer : B

43. Which action of thigh muscles could be impaired if the obturator nerve was injured during endoscopic resection of bladder tumors?
A. adduction
B. abduction
C.D. extension
Answer : A

44. Which statement explains the first event in the micturition reflex?
A. opening of internal bladder sphincter
B. fall in urethral pressure
C. rise in intravesical pressure
D. cessation of sphincter EMG activity
Answer : D

45. Where is the centre of reflex erection located at?
A. the brain cortex
B. the sacral cord
C. the lumbar cord
D. the hypothalamus
Answer : B

46. How does estrogen prevent lower UTI in postmenopausal women?
A. increasing vaginal secretions
B. decreasing vaginal pH
C. increasing normal vaginal flora
D. decreasing bacterial adherence
Answer : B

47. What is the function of PSA in semen?
A. increases semen volume
B. has antimicrobial activity
C. liquefies the seminal coagulum
D. decreases semen pH
Answer : C

48. What causes ureteral dilation during pregnancy is:
A. mechanical compression by the gravid uterus
B. physiological increase urine flow during pregnancy
C. elevated levels of progesterone
D. reflex inhibition of ureteral contractions
Answer : A

49. What could cause autonomic dysreflexia?
A. full bladder or rectum
B. tooth extraction
C. hypertension medications
D. uncontrolled diabetes mellitus
Answer : A

50. By which of the following structures, do the fused lower poles of hoarseshoe kidneys get trapped during embryologic ascent?
A. inferior mesenteric artery
B. superior mesenteric artery
C. celiac artery
D. common iliac artery
Answer : A