1000+ Urologic infections and inflammations MCQ for SSC Scientific Assistant [Solved]

1. Which of the following factors increases the risk of UTI due to promotion of microbial colonization?
A. neurogenic bladder
B. the use of spermicide
C. urinary catheterization
D. fecal incontinence
Answer : B

2. The virulence of uropathogenic E.coli depends on all the following,
EXCEPT:
A. P blood-group antigen
B. P fimbriae in descending infections
C. emolysins
D. Dr family of adhesins in ascending infections
Answer : B

3. Management of acute epididymo-orchitis in hospitalized patients includes all of the following, EXCEPT:
A. scrotal support and elevation
B. ice packs
C. non-steroidal anti-inflammatory agents
D. urethral catheterization
Answer : D

4. What are the target immune cells for HIV?
A. phagocytes
B. CD4 T cells
C. B lymphocytes
D. natural killer cells
Answer : B

5. What virus(s) could cause orchitis?
A. Coxsackie B
B. Epstein-Barr
C. varicella
D. all of the above
Answer : D

6. What is the preferred antimicrobial prophylaxis for transrectal prostate biopsy?
A. aminoglycoside
B. fluoroquinolone
C. 2nd generation cephalosporin
D. doxycycline
Answer : B

7. In males, HIV infection increases the incidence of the following genitourinary tumors:
A. testicular
B. renal
C. penile
D. all of the above
Answer : D

8. A 40 yrs. man presents with clinical acute pyelonephritis, on intravenous antibiotics for 4 days, CT shows a renal abscess. What is next in the treatment?
A. carry on the full antibiotic course, and then repeat CT
B. incision and drainage of the renal abscess with/without nephrectomy
C. the abscess size dictates management
D. perc. drainage of the renal abscess
Answer : C

9. What is false regarding Herpes simplex (HSV) infection?
A. characterized by neurovirulence
B. the incubation period of primary genital herpes is 2 3 weeks
C. HSV can be isolated in the urine
D. HSV-1 infection causes urethritis more often than HSV-2 does
Answer : B

10. What is false concerning Brucellosis epididymitis?
A. commonly presents with scrotal pain, swelling, fever, and leucocytosis
B. epididymo-orchitis is the most frequent genitourinary complication of brucellosis
C. epididymo-orchitis occurs in 10-15% of male patients with brucellosis
D. treatment includes doxycycline and rifampicin for 6-8 weeks
Answer : A

11. What is false regarding Fournier`s gangrene?
A. is defined as a polymicrobial chronic infection of the perineal, perianal, or genital areas
B. as the disease progresses, branches from the inferior epigastric, deep circumflex iliac, and external pudendal arteries get thrombosed
C. presents as a dark skinned-scrotum, subcutaneous crepitation, and foul smell
D. surgical debridement often spares the testes
Answer : A

12. What is true concerning BPS/IC?
A. the onset of symptoms is insidious
B. the lesion has no proven relation to bladder cancer
C. if left untreated, the bladder will turn small, contracted, with submucosal calcifications
D. a single positive urine culture refutes the diagnosis
Answer : B

13. What is the percentage of occurrence of Staphylococcus saprophyticus in symptomatic lower UTIs in young sexually active females?
A. 5%
B. 10%
C. 15%
D. 20%
Answer : B

14. Irritative LUTS and dyspareunia in postmenopausal women are most likely to be due to:
A. giggle incontinence
B. estrogen deficiency
C. cystitis glandularis
D. cystitis cystica
Answer : B

15. Which of the following has NO role in bacterial colonization in the prostate?
A. intra-prostatic ductal reflux
B. paraphimosis
C. specific blood groups
D. unprotected anal intercourse
Answer : B

16. What could NOT cause recurrent UTI in a 25 yrs. woman?
A. bladder neck suspension surgery
B. chronic constipation
C. poor genital hygiene
D. contraceptive diaphragm
Answer : A

17. What is the proper term to describe high bacterial count in urine without pus?
A. asymptomatic bacteriuria
B. sterile pyouria
C. bacterial colonization
D. unresolved bacteriuria
Answer : C

18. What is the least important measure in indwelling catheter care?
A. cleansing the urethral meatus with aseptic agent
B. careful aseptic insertion of the catheter
C. maintenance of a closed drainage system
D. maintaining a dependant drainage system
Answer : A

19. What is false concerning peri-renal abscess?
A. could result from intra-renal abscess of ascending infection
B. urine culture might be negative
C. plain KUB X-ray has no value in the diagnosis
D. surgical drainage is the proper treatment
Answer : C

20. What is true concerning malakoplakia?
A. isa premalignant condition
B. it can be locally aggressive and invades surrounding structures causing bone erosions
C. kidneys are the most commonly affected organs
D. characterized by rounded intracellular inclusions (owls-eyes) in large esinophilic histocytes
Answer : B

21. What is true regarding contrast CT imaging for a renal abscess?
A. abscess appears as a low attenuation cystic cavity containing gas
B. renal parenchyma around the abscess cavity may show hypo enhancement in nephrogram phase
C. associated fascial and septal thickening are seen with obliteration of perinephric fat
D. all of the above
Answer : D

22. Which of the following conditions is NOT associated with interstitial cystitis?
A. inflammatory bowel disease
B. rheumatoid arthritis
C. systemic lupus erythematosus
D. fibromyalgia
Answer : B

23. What is true regarding nephrogenic adenoma of the bladder?
A. results from ectopic nephrogenic blastema cells in the detrusor muscle
B. might undergo malignant transformation in 15 40% of the cases
C. on cystoscopy, it appears as a bladder mucosal irregularity or large intramural mass
D. the preferred treatment is cystectomy and urinary diversion
Answer : C

24. Screening for bacteriuria is mostly indicated for:
A. seniors house residents
B. ICU patients with indwelling urinary catheters
C. pregnant women
D. neurogenic bladder patients on CIC
Answer : C

25. What is true concerning bacterial colonization in the bladder?
A. is always asymptomatic
B. it shows a serological immune antibody response
C. is a common cause of sterile pyuria
D. typically, at this stage, the body demonstrates bacteriuria
Answer : A

26. In which segmented voided bladder (VB) specimen, the diagnosis of chronic prostatitis is confirmed?
A. VB1 and VB3
B. prostatic secretions and the VB3
C. prostatic secretions and the VB2
D. prostatic secretions and the VB1
Answer : B

27. Which of the following does NOT cause unresolved bacteriuria?
A. giant staghorn stone
B. perivesical abscess with fistula to the bladder
C. bacterial resistance
D. self-inflicted infection
Answer : B

28. What is false concerning cystitis glandularis?
A. rarely, the urothelial cell nests show a central lumen lined by glandular epithelium
B. In some cases, it may form polypoid masses that mimic urothelial neoplasms
C. It might appear as multinodular exophytic mass seen on cystoscopy
D. cystitis cystica and cystitis glandularis frequently coexist in the same specimen
Answer : A

29. What is the most commonly affected organ by genitourinary Brucellosis?
A. kidneys
B. bladder
C. prostate
D. epididymis
Answer : D

30. What is the earliest clinical finding of urosepsis?
A. elevated body temperature
B. dropped blood pressure
C. elevated heart rate
D. reduced urine output
Answer : C

31. What is the laboratory differentiation between type III-a and type III-b prostatitis?
A. the cytological examination of the urine and/or EPS
B. transrectal ultrasonographic examination
C. the presence of ?10 WBCs/HPF in the urine with negative culture in type III-b
D. the positive urine culture, and negative EPS support type III-a
Answer : A

32. What type of cells is implicated most in the pathogenesis of BPS/IC?
A. histocytes
B. T lymphocytes
C. mast cells
D. B lymphocytes
Answer : C

33. What is false regarding pediatric renal parenchyma scarring?
A. chronic pyelonephritis and HTN lead to ESRD in 10% of the cases
B. neonatal symptoms of UTI are vague and non-specific, that delay the diagnosis and end in more scarring
C. despite adequate treatment, scarring continues after an attack of pyelonephritis as a chronic immune reaction against renal tubules
D. neonates have low intrarenal pelvic pressure, that predisposes to ascending infections
Answer : D

34. What is the average age of onset of BPS/IC patients?
A. 30
B. 40
C. 50
D. 60
Answer : B

35. What is false regarding the etiology and treatment of orchialgia syndrome?
A. small indirect inguinal hernia may irritate the genital branch of genitofemoral nerve causing orchialgia
B. might respond to a selective nerve block
C. the recommended treatment is orchiectomy with implantation of a testicular prosthesis
D. psychotherapy and stress management might alleviate the pain
Answer : C

36. Ureteral dilation in schistosomiasis could be due to:
A. vesicoureteral reflux
B. stenosis of the lower ureter
C. edematous ureteral wall causing deficient peristalsis
D. any of the above
Answer : D

37. What group of patients should be treated for UTI only when symptomatic?
A. patients with indwelling catheters
B. neurogenic bladder patients on CIC
C. pregnant women
D. children under 5 years
Answer : A

38. What are the most indicative symptoms of chronic pyelonephritis?
A. fever and chills
B. suprapubic pain and pyuria
C. flank pain and tenderness
D. none of the above
Answer : D

40. What is false concerning esinophilic cystitis?
A. probably due to antibody/antigen reaction
B. has no diagnostic findings on cystoscopy
C. has no specific medical therapy
D. on histology, Von Brunn`s nests appear invaginating the urothelium into the lamina propria
Answer : D

41. What is the commonest cause of relapsing UTI in males?
A. chronic epididymitis
B. epididymo-orchitis
C. chronic bacterial prostatitis
D. venereal cysto-urethritis
Answer : C

42. What is the mortality rate of emphysematous pyelonephritis?
A. 43%
B. 53%
C. 63%
D. 73%
Answer : A

43. What type of bladder cells secretes antiproliferative factor?
A. bladder epithelial cells
B. type C nerve endings in the bladder
C. type A delta nerve endings in the bladder
D. the innermost longitudinal fibres of detrusor muscle
Answer : A

44. What is true concerning HIV infection?
A. HIV is a retrovirus that infects B-cells and dendritic cells
B. circumcised men are at lower risk for HIV infection
C. HPV infection increases the risk for cancers in HIV patients by 6.3 times
D. plasma HIV RNA load is a predictor of disease remission
Answer : B

45. Which of the following does NOT cause sterile pyouria?
A. inadequately treated UTI
B. renal papillary necrosis
C. acute emphysematous pyelonephritis
D. urinary tract tuberculosis
Answer : C

46. What is false concerning radiation cystitis?
A. the average time from the beginning of radiation therapy to initial symptoms could be 2 4 weeks
B. treatment with stationary radiation, portals carry a higher risk of morbidity than treatment with rotating portals do
C. it occurs in about 10% of patients treated with definitive irradiation therapy for prostate cancer after 10 years
D. most cases are mildly affected and require no specific therapy
Answer : A

47. As per NIH classification of prostatitis, which type requires no treatment?
A. type I
B. type II
C. type III
D. type IV
Answer : D

48. What are the commonest organisms causing acute epididymitis in males younger than 35 yrs.?
A. N. gonorrhea and C. trachomatis
B. E. coli and Pseudomonas species
C. Mycoplasma genitalium and Ureaplasma species
D. Trichomonas vaginalis and Gardnerella vaginalis
Answer : A

49. Directed physiotherapy could be of value in treating what NIH type of prostatitis?
A. type II
B. type III-a
C. type III-b
D. type IV
Answer : C

50. What are the most commonly affected organs by genitourinary schistosomiasis?
A. kidneys and adrenals
B. bladder and ureters
C. prostate and vasa
D. testes and epididymi
Answer : B