1000+ Urologic infections and inflammations Multiple Choice Question Answer [Solved]
Thursday 9th of March 2023
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1. What is the percentage of occurrence of Staphylococcus saprophyticus in symptomatic lower UTIs in young sexually active females?
A. 5%
B. 10%
C. 15%
D. 20%
Answer : B
A. 5%
B. 10%
C. 15%
D. 20%
Answer : B
2. What is false concerning cystitis glandularis?
A. rarely, the urothelial cell nests show a central lumen lined by glandular epithelium
B. In some cases, it may form polypoid masses that mimic urothelial neoplasms
C. It might appear as multinodular exophytic mass seen on cystoscopy
D. cystitis cystica and cystitis glandularis frequently coexist in the same specimen
Answer : A
A. rarely, the urothelial cell nests show a central lumen lined by glandular epithelium
B. In some cases, it may form polypoid masses that mimic urothelial neoplasms
C. It might appear as multinodular exophytic mass seen on cystoscopy
D. cystitis cystica and cystitis glandularis frequently coexist in the same specimen
Answer : A
3. What is true concerning ovarian vein syndrome?
A. manifests as recurrent renal colics due to ureteral obstruction
B. treatment is surgical mobilization of ureter and ligation of the vein
C. commonly, occurs at the left side
D. the pain worsens on sitting upright and during pregnancy
Answer : B
A. manifests as recurrent renal colics due to ureteral obstruction
B. treatment is surgical mobilization of ureter and ligation of the vein
C. commonly, occurs at the left side
D. the pain worsens on sitting upright and during pregnancy
Answer : B
4. Using low-dose prophylactic or suppressive antimicrobials might be an option in treating the following type of prostatitis:
A. acute bacterial prostatitis presenting with abscess formation
B. recurrent or refractory chronic bacterial prostatitis
C. asymptomatic prostatitis with pyuria resistant to common antimicrobials
D. curiously, chronic inflammatory prostatitis could respond to low-dose suppressive antibiotic
Answer : B
A. acute bacterial prostatitis presenting with abscess formation
B. recurrent or refractory chronic bacterial prostatitis
C. asymptomatic prostatitis with pyuria resistant to common antimicrobials
D. curiously, chronic inflammatory prostatitis could respond to low-dose suppressive antibiotic
Answer : B
5. Why could pyuria be sterile?
A. because standard laboratory culture specifications might not be favorable for growth of atypical organisms
B. because UTI could show fewer than 10 white cells/mm3 in urine
C. because laboratories may not report significant growth of a defined urinary pathogen
D. all of the above
Answer : D
A. because standard laboratory culture specifications might not be favorable for growth of atypical organisms
B. because UTI could show fewer than 10 white cells/mm3 in urine
C. because laboratories may not report significant growth of a defined urinary pathogen
D. all of the above
Answer : D
6. What is false regarding urethral syndrome in postmenopausal women?
A. pH of vaginal secretions increases after menopause
B. estrogen deficiency manifests as trophic urethritis and atrophic vaginitis
C. topical conjugated estrogen replacement carries a significant risk of breast and endometrial cancers
D. manifestations might include obstructive symptoms and non-infectious cystitis
Answer : C
A. pH of vaginal secretions increases after menopause
B. estrogen deficiency manifests as trophic urethritis and atrophic vaginitis
C. topical conjugated estrogen replacement carries a significant risk of breast and endometrial cancers
D. manifestations might include obstructive symptoms and non-infectious cystitis
Answer : C
7. What is the preferred antimicrobial prophylaxis for transrectal prostate biopsy?
A. aminoglycoside
B. fluoroquinolone
C. 2nd generation cephalosporin
D. doxycycline
Answer : B
A. aminoglycoside
B. fluoroquinolone
C. 2nd generation cephalosporin
D. doxycycline
Answer : B
8. What is the preferred antibiotic for BPS/IC cases?
A. rifampicin
B. doxycycline
C. azithromycin
D. none of the above
Answer : D
A. rifampicin
B. doxycycline
C. azithromycin
D. none of the above
Answer : D
9. What is false concerning genitourinary TB?
A. is the commonest extra-pulmonary site of infection
B. bladder TB is secondary to renal TB, and usually begins at the ureteral orifices
C. in the kidneys, TB is typically bilateral, cortical, and adjacent to the glomeruli; they may remain dormant for ages
D. epididymal TB might occur by hematogenous or direct spread from the urinary tract
Answer : A
A. is the commonest extra-pulmonary site of infection
B. bladder TB is secondary to renal TB, and usually begins at the ureteral orifices
C. in the kidneys, TB is typically bilateral, cortical, and adjacent to the glomeruli; they may remain dormant for ages
D. epididymal TB might occur by hematogenous or direct spread from the urinary tract
Answer : A
10. What are the most commonly affected organs by genitourinary tuberculosis?
A. kidneys, prostate and epididymi
B. bladder, ureters and renal pelvis
C. vasa, scrotum and adrenals
D. testes, bladder neck and seminal vesicles
Answer : A
A. kidneys, prostate and epididymi
B. bladder, ureters and renal pelvis
C. vasa, scrotum and adrenals
D. testes, bladder neck and seminal vesicles
Answer : A
11. What is (are) the cause(s) of recurrent community acquired UTI in women?
A. uncontrolled DM
B. sexual activity with multiple partners
C. high vaginal receptivity to bacterial adherence
D. all of the above
Answer : D
A. uncontrolled DM
B. sexual activity with multiple partners
C. high vaginal receptivity to bacterial adherence
D. all of the above
Answer : D
12. Which of the following conditions does NOT cause bacterial persistence?
A. perivesical abscess with fistula to bladder
B. acute tubular necrosis
C. renal papillary necrosis
D. xanthogranulomatous pyelonephritis
Answer : C
A. perivesical abscess with fistula to bladder
B. acute tubular necrosis
C. renal papillary necrosis
D. xanthogranulomatous pyelonephritis
Answer : C
13. Epididymal cysts are common in the following conditions,
EXCEPT:
A. von Hippel-Lindau disease
B. tuberous sclerosis
C. cystic fibrosis
D. autosomal dominant polycystic kidney disease
Answer : B
EXCEPT:
A. von Hippel-Lindau disease
B. tuberous sclerosis
C. cystic fibrosis
D. autosomal dominant polycystic kidney disease
Answer : B
14. What is false concerning emphysematous cystitis?
A. the hallmark in the diagnosis is the cystoscopic findings
B. risk factors include transplant recipients
C. CT shows intramural and/or intraluminal gas in the bladder
D. requires surgical debridement and probably cystectomy
Answer : A
A. the hallmark in the diagnosis is the cystoscopic findings
B. risk factors include transplant recipients
C. CT shows intramural and/or intraluminal gas in the bladder
D. requires surgical debridement and probably cystectomy
Answer : A
15. As per NIH classification of prostatitis, which type requires no treatment?
A. type I
B. type II
C. type III
D. type IV
Answer : D
A. type I
B. type II
C. type III
D. type IV
Answer : D
16. What is false regarding schistosomal cystitis?
A. an esinophilic immune reaction is generated in response to the eggs
B. chronic schistosomiasis can eventually result in small bladder and the development of cancers
C. schistosoma mansoni often causes urinary tract infections
D. could cause inflammatory polys and recurrent hematuria
Answer : C
A. an esinophilic immune reaction is generated in response to the eggs
B. chronic schistosomiasis can eventually result in small bladder and the development of cancers
C. schistosoma mansoni often causes urinary tract infections
D. could cause inflammatory polys and recurrent hematuria
Answer : C
17. What is NOT a complication of mumps orchitis?
A. infertility
B. hypogonadotropic hypogonadism
C. non seminomatous germ cell tumor
D. chronic orchalgia
Answer : C
A. infertility
B. hypogonadotropic hypogonadism
C. non seminomatous germ cell tumor
D. chronic orchalgia
Answer : C
18. The relative risk of prostate cancer in men with HIV compared to uninfected individuals is:
A. greater than 8 fold
B. greater than 6 fold
C. greater than 4 fold
D. comparable
Answer : D
A. greater than 8 fold
B. greater than 6 fold
C. greater than 4 fold
D. comparable
Answer : D
19. Which of the following factors increases the risk of UTI due to promotion of microbial colonization?
A. neurogenic bladder
B. the use of spermicide
C. urinary catheterization
D. fecal incontinence
Answer : B
A. neurogenic bladder
B. the use of spermicide
C. urinary catheterization
D. fecal incontinence
Answer : B
20. What factor(s) increase(s) the risk of bacterial colonization in the prostate?
A. acute epididymitis
B. indwelling urethral catheters
C. transurethral surgery
D. all of the above
Answer : D
A. acute epididymitis
B. indwelling urethral catheters
C. transurethral surgery
D. all of the above
Answer : D
21. HIV infection increases the incidence of the following cancers, EXCEPT:
A. Kaposi sarcoma,
B. Hodgkin lymphoma
C. non-Hodgkin lymphoma
D. cervical cancer
Answer : B
A. Kaposi sarcoma,
B. Hodgkin lymphoma
C. non-Hodgkin lymphoma
D. cervical cancer
Answer : B
22. A 48 yrs. woman presents with recurrent cystitis. Cystoscopy showed a raised bladder lesion. Biopsies from the lesion reveals Von Hansemann histiocytes, and Michaelis-Gutmann bodies. What is the treatment?
A. sulfonamide for several months
B. TUR of the bladder lesion followed by proper staging
C. radical cystectomy and urinary diversion
D. intravesical installation of mitomycin without irradiation
Answer : A
A. sulfonamide for several months
B. TUR of the bladder lesion followed by proper staging
C. radical cystectomy and urinary diversion
D. intravesical installation of mitomycin without irradiation
Answer : A
23. What is false regarding biopsy-taking from interstitial cystitis bladder?
A. no pathognomonic histology for interstitial cystitis
B. basically, biopsies are performed to exclude carcinomas and other varieties of cystitis
C. diagnostic biopsies include the presence of discrete micro-ulcers and increased numbers of mast cells in the detrusor muscle or submucosa
D. none of the above
Answer : C
A. no pathognomonic histology for interstitial cystitis
B. basically, biopsies are performed to exclude carcinomas and other varieties of cystitis
C. diagnostic biopsies include the presence of discrete micro-ulcers and increased numbers of mast cells in the detrusor muscle or submucosa
D. none of the above
Answer : C
24. What is true regarding urinary catheter-associated UTI (CAUTI)?
A. indwelling catheter insertion must be under sterile condition
B. systemic antibiotics help best in preventing bacteriuria
C. greater than 90% of nosocomial UTIs are related to urethral catheters
D. Intermittent catheterization carries the incidence of 1-3% of developing bacteriuria per insertion
Answer : D
A. indwelling catheter insertion must be under sterile condition
B. systemic antibiotics help best in preventing bacteriuria
C. greater than 90% of nosocomial UTIs are related to urethral catheters
D. Intermittent catheterization carries the incidence of 1-3% of developing bacteriuria per insertion
Answer : D
25. What is the laboratory differentiation between type III-a and type III-b prostatitis?
A. the cytological examination of the urine and/or EPS
B. transrectal ultrasonographic examination
C. the presence of ?10 WBCs/HPF in the urine with negative culture in type III-b
D. the positive urine culture, and negative EPS support type III-a
Answer : A
A. the cytological examination of the urine and/or EPS
B. transrectal ultrasonographic examination
C. the presence of ?10 WBCs/HPF in the urine with negative culture in type III-b
D. the positive urine culture, and negative EPS support type III-a
Answer : A
26. No need for radiologic studies for recurrent UTI in:
A. children
B. the elderly
C. men
D. women
Answer : D
A. children
B. the elderly
C. men
D. women
Answer : D
27. What is true regarding Xanthogranulomatous Pyelonephritis?
A. CT shows the characteristic bear paw sign
B. it is an infected, obstructed, poorly functioning kidney containing stones
C. nephrectomy is the treatment
D. all of the above
Answer : D
A. CT shows the characteristic bear paw sign
B. it is an infected, obstructed, poorly functioning kidney containing stones
C. nephrectomy is the treatment
D. all of the above
Answer : D
28. Which treatment modality has NO proven efficacy in CP/CPPS?
A. selective nerve block
B. balloon dilation
C. botulinum A toxin injection
D. ESWL
Answer : B
A. selective nerve block
B. balloon dilation
C. botulinum A toxin injection
D. ESWL
Answer : B
29. What could NOT cause recurrent UTI in a 25 yrs. woman?
A. bladder neck suspension surgery
B. chronic constipation
C. poor genital hygiene
D. contraceptive diaphragm
Answer : A
A. bladder neck suspension surgery
B. chronic constipation
C. poor genital hygiene
D. contraceptive diaphragm
Answer : A
30. What is true concerning the treatment of catheter associated bacteriuria?
A. should be flushed frequently, but no antibiotic is advised
B. should be treated if febrile UTI has developed
C. should be treated only if urine culture is positive
D. should be treated once the catheter is removed
Answer : B
A. should be flushed frequently, but no antibiotic is advised
B. should be treated if febrile UTI has developed
C. should be treated only if urine culture is positive
D. should be treated once the catheter is removed
Answer : B
31. All of the following etiologies for interstitial cystitis have been theorized, EXCEPT:
A. allergic, type I hypersensitivity response
B. pelvic floor dysfunction
C. up-regulation of histaminergic and muscarinic neuro-receptors
D. neural hypersensitivity
Answer : A
A. allergic, type I hypersensitivity response
B. pelvic floor dysfunction
C. up-regulation of histaminergic and muscarinic neuro-receptors
D. neural hypersensitivity
Answer : A
32. Which of the following conditions is NOT associated with interstitial cystitis?
A. inflammatory bowel disease
B. rheumatoid arthritis
C. systemic lupus erythematosus
D. fibromyalgia
Answer : B
A. inflammatory bowel disease
B. rheumatoid arthritis
C. systemic lupus erythematosus
D. fibromyalgia
Answer : B
33. What is false regarding Fournier`s gangrene?
A. is defined as a polymicrobial chronic infection of the perineal, perianal, or genital areas
B. as the disease progresses, branches from the inferior epigastric, deep circumflex iliac, and external pudendal arteries get thrombosed
C. presents as a dark skinned-scrotum, subcutaneous crepitation, and foul smell
D. surgical debridement often spares the testes
Answer : A
A. is defined as a polymicrobial chronic infection of the perineal, perianal, or genital areas
B. as the disease progresses, branches from the inferior epigastric, deep circumflex iliac, and external pudendal arteries get thrombosed
C. presents as a dark skinned-scrotum, subcutaneous crepitation, and foul smell
D. surgical debridement often spares the testes
Answer : A
34. What is the estimated risk of untreated Chlamydial infections in producing pelvic inflammatory disease?
A. 1 2.7%
B. 5 9%
C. 10 27%
D. 30 47%
Answer : C
A. 1 2.7%
B. 5 9%
C. 10 27%
D. 30 47%
Answer : C
35. What type of human Herpes virus is implicated in all forms of Kaposi sarcoma?
A. 2
B. 6
C. 7
D. 8
Answer : D
A. 2
B. 6
C. 7
D. 8
Answer : D
36. What is false regarding Herpes simplex (HSV) infection?
A. characterized by neurovirulence
B. the incubation period of primary genital herpes is 2 3 weeks
C. HSV can be isolated in the urine
D. HSV-1 infection causes urethritis more often than HSV-2 does
Answer : B
A. characterized by neurovirulence
B. the incubation period of primary genital herpes is 2 3 weeks
C. HSV can be isolated in the urine
D. HSV-1 infection causes urethritis more often than HSV-2 does
Answer : B
37. What does NOT predispose to acute epididymitis is:
A. TUR ejaculatory duct
B. prolonged urethral catheterization
C. prostatic biopsy
D. vas ligation
Answer : C
A. TUR ejaculatory duct
B. prolonged urethral catheterization
C. prostatic biopsy
D. vas ligation
Answer : C
38. What are the commonest organisms causing acute epididymitis in males younger than 35 yrs.?
A. N. gonorrhea and C. trachomatis
B. E. coli and Pseudomonas species
C. Mycoplasma genitalium and Ureaplasma species
D. Trichomonas vaginalis and Gardnerella vaginalis
Answer : A
A. N. gonorrhea and C. trachomatis
B. E. coli and Pseudomonas species
C. Mycoplasma genitalium and Ureaplasma species
D. Trichomonas vaginalis and Gardnerella vaginalis
Answer : A
39. UPOINT system for phenotype categorization:
A. categorizes CP-CPPS, IC, and painful bladder syndrome based on 5 etiological principles
B. meant to classify CP-CPPS and IC patients into 6 domains
C. helps establish a reliable diagnosis of CP/CPPS or IC
D. the diagnostic scores of UPOINT depend on cystoscopy, TRUS, urine analysis and culture of uncommon microbes
Answer : B
A. categorizes CP-CPPS, IC, and painful bladder syndrome based on 5 etiological principles
B. meant to classify CP-CPPS and IC patients into 6 domains
C. helps establish a reliable diagnosis of CP/CPPS or IC
D. the diagnostic scores of UPOINT depend on cystoscopy, TRUS, urine analysis and culture of uncommon microbes
Answer : B
40. What is false in the treatment and prevention of STDs?
A. antibiotic therapy is recommended for affected individuals with documented trichomonal infection and sexual partners even if asymptomatic
B. empirical treatment for gonococcal urethritis should cover chlamydia trachomatis
C. consistent and proper usage of condoms is estimated to prevent HIV transmission by approximately 80 to 95%
D. vaccinations are available for the prevention of human papillomavirus, N. gonorrhea, chlamydia trachomatis
Answer : D
A. antibiotic therapy is recommended for affected individuals with documented trichomonal infection and sexual partners even if asymptomatic
B. empirical treatment for gonococcal urethritis should cover chlamydia trachomatis
C. consistent and proper usage of condoms is estimated to prevent HIV transmission by approximately 80 to 95%
D. vaccinations are available for the prevention of human papillomavirus, N. gonorrhea, chlamydia trachomatis
Answer : D
41. What is the average age of onset of BPS/IC patients?
A. 30
B. 40
C. 50
D. 60
Answer : B
A. 30
B. 40
C. 50
D. 60
Answer : B
42. What is the most important pharmacokinetic property of a drug to cure UTI?
A. mode of administration
B. level in the serum
C. level in the urine
D. dosage
Answer : C
A. mode of administration
B. level in the serum
C. level in the urine
D. dosage
Answer : C
43. Asymptomatic bacteriuria should be treated in the following situations:
A. in the elderly
B. in long-term catheterized patient
C. in pregnancy
D. none of the above
Answer : C
A. in the elderly
B. in long-term catheterized patient
C. in pregnancy
D. none of the above
Answer : C
44. What is false concerning Chlamydia trachomatis urethritis in males:
A. produces yellow whitish, scanty, frothy urethral discharge
B. shows gram (+), extracellular diplococcic
C. infection could be contracted from the spouses eyes
D. responds fairly to azithromycin
Answer : B
A. produces yellow whitish, scanty, frothy urethral discharge
B. shows gram (+), extracellular diplococcic
C. infection could be contracted from the spouses eyes
D. responds fairly to azithromycin
Answer : B
45. What is true regarding acute pyelonephritis?
A. a cause of obstruction should be sought
B. PCN is placed to decompress the kidney and preserve renal function
C. blood-born staphylococci are commoner than ascending E.coli infections
D. blood and urine cultures must dictate the antibiotic choice from day 1
Answer : A
A. a cause of obstruction should be sought
B. PCN is placed to decompress the kidney and preserve renal function
C. blood-born staphylococci are commoner than ascending E.coli infections
D. blood and urine cultures must dictate the antibiotic choice from day 1
Answer : A
46. What is the likelihood of contracting gonorrheal disease following a single intercourse with an infected woman?
A. 1.7%
B. 7%
C. 17%
D. 71%
Answer : C
A. 1.7%
B. 7%
C. 17%
D. 71%
Answer : C
47. What virus(s) could cause orchitis?
A. Coxsackie B
B. Epstein-Barr
C. varicella
D. all of the above
Answer : D
A. Coxsackie B
B. Epstein-Barr
C. varicella
D. all of the above
Answer : D
48. What are the diagnostic findings on cystometrogram for BPS/IC?
A. discomfort on placing urethral catheter and pain on bladder filling
B. difficulty in zeroing the pressure and diminished response to first cough
C. low filling pressure but high voiding pressure
D. uninhibited bladder contractions with a relative bladder hypotonia
Answer : A
A. discomfort on placing urethral catheter and pain on bladder filling
B. difficulty in zeroing the pressure and diminished response to first cough
C. low filling pressure but high voiding pressure
D. uninhibited bladder contractions with a relative bladder hypotonia
Answer : A
49. What condition causes sterile pyuria?
A. urethral infection with trichomonas vaginalis
B. bladder infection with adenovirus
C. Kawasakis disease
D. all of the above
Answer : D
A. urethral infection with trichomonas vaginalis
B. bladder infection with adenovirus
C. Kawasakis disease
D. all of the above
Answer : D
50. What is true concerning BPS/IC?
A. the onset of symptoms is insidious
B. the lesion has no proven relation to bladder cancer
C. if left untreated, the bladder will turn small, contracted, with submucosal calcifications
D. a single positive urine culture refutes the diagnosis
Answer : B
A. the onset of symptoms is insidious
B. the lesion has no proven relation to bladder cancer
C. if left untreated, the bladder will turn small, contracted, with submucosal calcifications
D. a single positive urine culture refutes the diagnosis
Answer : B
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