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CLAT PG - Urologic infections and inflammations 1000+ MCQ [Solved] PDF Download

Thursday 9th of March 2023

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1. During the initial 3-month period of HIV infection, what would be the best diagnostic lab test?
A. viral load assay
B. western blot analysis
C. southern blot analysis
D. HIV-1/HIV-2 serology assay
Answer : A
2. What type of cells is implicated most in the pathogenesis of BPS/IC?
A. histocytes
B. T lymphocytes
C. mast cells
D. B lymphocytes
Answer : C
3. Ureteral dilation in schistosomiasis could be due to:
A. vesicoureteral reflux
B. stenosis of the lower ureter
C. edematous ureteral wall causing deficient peristalsis
D. any of the above
Answer : D
4. What is false concerning post UTI renal scarring in pediatrics?
A. the incidence of scarring following a single episode of febrile UTI is 4.5%
B. intra-renal reflux is common in convex papillae
C. scarring and chronic pyelonephritis lead to hypertension in 10-20%
D. scarring is best detected and followed up by DMSA
Answer : B
5. HIV infection increases the incidence of the following cancers, EXCEPT:
A. Kaposi sarcoma,
B. Hodgkin lymphoma
C. non-Hodgkin lymphoma
D. cervical cancer
Answer : B
6. Irritative LUTS and dyspareunia in postmenopausal women are most likely to be due to:
A. giggle incontinence
B. estrogen deficiency
C. cystitis glandularis
D. cystitis cystica
Answer : B
7. What is the most virulent factor for bacterial adherence?
A. P blood group
B. fimbria
C. pili
D. hemolysin
Answer : C
8. Which of the following is NOT a treatment option for BPS/IC?
A. substitution cystoplasty and continent diversion
B. fulguration of a Hunner`s ulcer or hydrodistention
C. intravesical installation of silver nitrate or dimethyl sulfoxide
D. low dose external beam irradiation
Answer : D
9. What is false concerning chronic orchialgia syndrome?
A. it is a constant or intermittent pain of testes for more than 3 months
B. could be due to appendix testis torsion-detorsion
C. could be due to radiculitis resulting from a degenerative lesion in the thoraco-lumber vertebrae
D. could be a result of entrapment neuropathy of ilioinguinal or genitofemoral nerve
Answer : B
10. What is false regarding cystitis cystica?
A. most cysts appear as filling defects on cystography
B. most often found in the trigone area
C. the cyst lumens contain esinophilic secretions that may have a few inflammatory cells
D. cystitis cystica and cystitis glandularis are reactive urothelial changes
Answer : A
11. What is false concerning the presentation of prostatitis syndrome?
A. type I could harbor prostate abscess
B. type II presents as intermittent urinary tract infections
C. type III-a presentation might include psychological complaints
D. between 10-15% of men with type IV, have pus cells in their semen but no symptoms
Answer : C
12. What is false regarding prostatic abscesses?
A. clinically, cannot be differentiated from acute bacterial prostatitis
B. medical management is often unsuccessful
C. it harbors prostate cancer in approximately 4.3% of cases
D. management include suprapubic urinary diversion
Answer : C
13. What is true concerning malakoplakia?
A. is a premalignant condition
B. it can be locally aggressive and invades surrounding structures causing bone erosions
C. kidneys are the most commonly affected organs
D. characterized by rounded intracellular inclusions (owls-eyes) in large esinophilic histocytes
Answer : B
14. What condition causes sterile pyuria?
A. urethral infection with trichomonas vaginalis
B. bladder infection with adenovirus
C. Kawasakis disease
D. all of the above
Answer : D
15. Which of the following is NOT a first-choice antimicrobial agent for uncomplicated acute cystitis in women?
A. nitrofurantoin monohydrate/macrocrystals
B. trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole
C. ampicillin
D. fosfomycin
Answer : C
16. What is false concerning inverted papilloma of the bladder?
A. It is an endophytic tumor of the transitional urothelium
B. harbors p53 gene mutations
C. presents with hematuria, dysuria, and irritative voiding
D. the lesion requires transurethral resection
Answer : B
17. What type of scrotal ulcers is painless, punched out, with yellowish grey floor?
A. tuberculous ulcer
B. malignant ulcer
C. gummatous ulcers
D. traumatic ulcer
Answer : C
18. What condition is associated with renal papillary necrosis?
A. nephrotic syndrome
B. hypertension
C. sickle cell hemoglobinopathy
D. sarcoidosis
Answer : C
19. Which of the following has NO role in bacterial colonization in the prostate?
A. intra-prostatic ductal reflux
B. paraphimosis
C. specific blood groups
D. unprotected anal intercourse
Answer : B
20. What is the laboratory differentiation between type III-a and type III-b prostatitis?
A. the cytological examination of the urine and/or EPS
B. transrectal ultrasonographic examination
C. the presence of ?10 WBCs/HPF in the urine with negative culture in type III-b
D. the positive urine culture, and negative EPS support type III-a
Answer : A
21. What is false concerning corpora amylacea of the prostate?
A. are premalignant, and found in 1-6% of prostate biopsies
B. are small hyaline masses of unknown significance found in the prostate gland
C. they are degenerate cells or thickened secretions in the prostate ducts
D. might appear as prostate calcifications on X-ray KUB
Answer : A
22. Epididymal cysts are common in the following conditions,
EXCEPT:

A. von Hippel-Lindau disease
B. tuberous sclerosis
C. cystic fibrosis
D. autosomal dominant polycystic kidney disease
Answer : B
23. What is false in the treatment and prevention of STDs?
A. antibiotic therapy is recommended for affected individuals with documented trichomonal infection and sexual partners even if asymptomatic
B. empirical treatment for gonococcal urethritis should cover chlamydia trachomatis
C. consistent and proper usage of condoms is estimated to prevent HIV transmission by approximately 80 to 95%
D. vaccinations are available for the prevention of human papillomavirus, N. gonorrhea, chlamydia trachomatis
Answer : D
24. Which of the following factors increases the risk of UTI due to promotion of microbial colonization?
A. neurogenic bladder
B. the use of spermicide
C. urinary catheterization
D. fecal incontinence
Answer : B
25. What is the estimated risk of untreated Chlamydial infections in producing pelvic inflammatory disease?
A. 1 2.7%
B. 5 9%
C. 10 27%
D. 30 47%
Answer : C
26. What is (are) the complication(s) of sexually transmitted infections?
A. pelvic inflammatory disease
B. lymphogranuloma venereum
C. infertility
D. all of the above
Answer : D
27. What is the most common serotype of HPV associated with squamous cell carcinoma of the penis?
A. 16
B. 18
C. 22
D. 12
Answer : A
28. What is true concerning scrotal abscesses?
A. could be a complication of chronic epididymitis and orchalgia
B. testicular torsion must be excluded
C. infected hair follicles and scrotal lacerations are predisposing factors
D. urethral discharge is not uncommon presentation
Answer : C
29. What is false concerning emphysematous cystitis?
A. the hallmark in the diagnosis is the cystoscopic findings
B. risk factors include transplant recipients
C. CT shows intramural and/or intraluminal gas in the bladder
D. requires surgical debridement and probably cystectomy
Answer : A
30. What group of patients should be treated for UTI only when symptomatic?
A. patients with indwelling catheters
B. neurogenic bladder patients on CIC
C. pregnant women
D. children under 5 years
Answer : A
31. What factor(s) increase(s) the risk of bacterial colonization in the prostate?
A. acute epididymitis
B. indwelling urethral catheters
C. transurethral surgery
D. all of the above
Answer : D
32. A 40 yrs. man presents with clinical acute pyelonephritis, on intravenous antibiotics for 4 days, CT shows a renal abscess. What is next in the treatment?
A. carry on the full antibiotic course, and then repeat CT
B. incision and drainage of the renal abscess with/without nephrectomy
C. the abscess size dictates management
D. perc. drainage of the renal abscess
Answer : C
33. What is true regarding balanoposthitis?
A. is best diagnosed by ascending urethrography
B. occurs mostly in diabetic and immunosuppressed patients
C. could be due to maceration injury, irritant dermatitis, or Candida
D. commonly presents with deep inguinal lymphadenopathy
Answer : C
34. What is true concerning the treatment of catheter associated bacteriuria?
A. should be flushed frequently, but no antibiotic is advised
B. should be treated if febrile UTI has developed
C. should be treated only if urine culture is positive
D. should be treated once the catheter is removed
Answer : B
35. Using low-dose prophylactic or suppressive antimicrobials might be an option in treating the following type of prostatitis:
A. acute bacterial prostatitis presenting with abscess formation
B. recurrent or refractory chronic bacterial prostatitis
C. asymptomatic prostatitis with pyuria resistant to common antimicrobials
D. curiously, chronic inflammatory prostatitis could respond to low-dose suppressive antibiotic
Answer : B
36. A 48 yrs. woman presents with recurrent cystitis. Cystoscopy showed a raised bladder lesion. Biopsies from the lesion reveals Von Hansemann histiocytes, and Michaelis-Gutmann bodies. What is the treatment?
A. sulfonamide for several months
B. TUR of the bladder lesion followed by proper staging
C. radical cystectomy and urinary diversion
D. intravesical installation of mitomycin without irradiation
Answer : A
37. Which statement best defines reinfection?
A. a new episode of UTI caused by different species or occurring at long intervals
B. recurrent UTIs causedby the same organism in each instance, classically, at close intervals
C. recurrent UTIs due to failure of medical therapy to eradicate the infection
D. recurrent UTIs due to a persistent pathology that is obstinate to surgery
Answer : A
38. Screening for bacteriuria is mostly indicated for:
A. seniors house residents
B. ICU patients with indwelling urinary catheters
C. pregnant women
D. neurogenic bladder patients on CIC
Answer : C
39. What is false concerning urinary catheter-associated UTI (CAUTI)?
A. once a catheter is placed, the daily incidence of bacteriuria is 3-10%
B. on long-term catheterization, over 90% of patients develop bacteriuria
C. the practice of using urinary catheters to control incontinence in bedridden patients should be discouraged
D. urine bags should be placed on the floor to enhance gravity drainage
Answer : D
40. No need for radiologic studies for recurrent UTI in:
A. children
B. the elderly
C. men
D. women
Answer : D
41. What is false concerning antiretroviral medications?
A. multiple antiretroviral drugs can be combined into a single pill
B. might cause radiolucent renal stones
C. can lead to a significant rise in the serum level of PDE5 inhibitors, if taken simultaneously
D. have the advantage of structured treatment interruptions (drug holidays)
Answer : D
42. What is (are) the prominent clinical finding(s) in the diagnosis of acute pyelonephritis?
A. fever, chills, abdominal pain
B. costovertibral angle tenderness
C. hypogastric and loin pain
D. flank pain, dysuria
Answer : B
43. What kind of non-infectious cystitis, do patients with systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE), likely to develop?
A. cystitis glandularis
B. cystitis cystica
C. esinophilic cystitis
D. cystitis follicularis
Answer : C
44. What is false concerning cystitis glandularis?
A. rarely, the urothelial cell nests show a central lumen lined by glandular epithelium
B. In some cases, it may form polypoid masses that mimic urothelial neoplasms
C. It might appear as multinodular exophytic mass seen on cystoscopy
D. cystitis cystica and cystitis glandularis frequently coexist in the same specimen
Answer : A
45. What is true concerning bacterial colonization in the bladder?
A. is always asymptomatic
B. it shows a serological immune antibody response
C. is a common cause of sterile pyuria
D. typically, at this stage, the body demonstrates bacteriuria
Answer : A
46. What could cause unresolved bacteriuria?
A. drug resistance
B. non-compliance
C. the presence of persistent pathology
D. all of the above
Answer : D
47. What is the percentage of occurrence of Staphylococcus saprophyticus in symptomatic lower UTIs in young sexually active females?
A. 5%
B. 10%
C. 15%
D. 20%
Answer : B
48. What is the average age of onset of BPS/IC patients?
A. 30
B. 40
C. 50
D. 60
Answer : B
49. What is false concerning radiation cystitis?
A. the average time from the beginning of radiation therapy to initial symptoms could be 2 4 weeks
B. treatment with stationary radiation, portals carry a higher risk of morbidity than treatment with rotating portals do
C. it occurs in about 10% of patients treated with definitive irradiation therapy for prostate cancer after 10 years
D. most cases are mildly affected and require no specific therapy
Answer : A
50. What is false concerning Brucellosis epididymitis?
A. commonly presents with scrotal pain, swelling, fever, and leucocytosis
B. epididymo-orchitis is the most frequent genitourinary complication of brucellosis
C. epididymo-orchitis occurs in 10-15% of male patients with brucellosis
D. treatment includes doxycycline and rifampicin for 6-8 weeks
Answer : A

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