1000+ Urologic infections and inflammations Multiple Choice Question Answer [Solved]

1. What is true concerning scrotal abscesses?
A. could be a complication of chronic epididymitis and orchalgia
B. testicular torsion must be excluded
C. infected hair follicles and scrotal lacerations are predisposing factors
D. urethral discharge is not uncommon presentation
Answer : C

2. What is false regarding Gonorrheal STD in women?
A. nucleic acid amplification tests are the preferred to diagnose Gonococcal and Chlamydial infections
B. shows dark yellow, purulent, thick urethral discharge
C. the most common site of the infection is the endocervix
D. the incubation period is 2 3 weeks
Answer : D

3. In males, HIV infection increases the incidence of the following genitourinary tumors:
A. testicular
B. renal
C. penile
D. all of the above
Answer : D

4. Management of acute epididymo-orchitis in hospitalized patients includes all of the following, EXCEPT:
A. scrotal support and elevation
B. ice packs
C. non-steroidal anti-inflammatory agents
D. urethral catheterization
Answer : D

5. What are the target immune cells for HIV?
A. phagocytes
B. CD4 T cells
C. B lymphocytes
D. natural killer cells
Answer : B

6. Directed physiotherapy could be of value in treating what NIH type of prostatitis?
A. type II
B. type III-a
C. type III-b
D. type IV
Answer : C

7. What kind of non-infectious cystitis, do patients with systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE), likely to develop?
A. cystitis glandularis
B. cystitis cystica
C. esinophilic cystitis
D. cystitis follicularis
Answer : C

8. What is false concerning cystitis glandularis?
A. rarely, the urothelial cell nests show a central lumen lined by glandular epithelium
B. In some cases, it may form polypoid masses that mimic urothelial neoplasms
C. It might appear as multinodular exophytic mass seen on cystoscopy
D. cystitis cystica and cystitis glandularis frequently coexist in the same specimen
Answer : A

9. What is (are) the complication(s) of sexually transmitted infections?
A. pelvic inflammatory disease
B. lymphogranuloma venereum
C. infertility
D. all of the above
Answer : D

10. What is true concerning bacterial colonization in the bladder?
A. is always asymptomatic
B. it shows a serological immune antibody response
C. is a common cause of sterile pyuria
D. typically, at this stage, the body demonstrates bacteriuria
Answer : A

11. What is false regarding the etiology and treatment of orchialgia syndrome?
A. small indirect inguinal hernia may irritate the genital branch of genitofemoral nerve causing orchialgia
B. might respond to a selective nerve block
C. the recommended treatment is orchiectomy with implantation of a testicular prosthesis
D. psychotherapy and stress management might alleviate the pain
Answer : C

12. What condition(s) could occur in schistosomal ureter?
A. beading of the lower ureteral segment
B. ureteral fibrosis and calcifications of the distal ureter
C. stricture at the uretero-vesical junction
D. all of the above
Answer : D

13. What is the least important measure in indwelling catheter care?
A. cleansing the urethral meatus with aseptic agent
B. careful aseptic insertion of the catheter
C. maintenance of a closed drainage system
D. maintaining a dependant drainage system
Answer : A

14. Which of the following does NOT cause unresolved bacteriuria?
A. giant staghorn stone
B. perivesical abscess with fistula to the bladder
C. bacterial resistance
D. self-inflicted infection
Answer : B

15. A 60 yrs. man underwent TURP for, only, obstructive LUTS. Histology of prostate chips reveals prostatitis. What NIH type of prostatitis would it be?
A. type I
B. type II
C. type III
D. type IV
Answer : D

16. Which of the following is NOT a treatment option for BPS/IC?
A. substitution cystoplasty and continent diversion
B. fulguration of a Hunner`s ulcer or hydrodistention
C. intravesical installation of silver nitrate or dimethyl sulfoxide
D. low dose external beam irradiation
Answer : D

17. The virulence of uropathogenic E.coli depends on all the following,
EXCEPT:
A. P blood-group antigen
B. P fimbriae in descending infections
C. emolysins
D. Dr family of adhesins in ascending infections
Answer : B

18. What antimicrobial agent treats UTI and does NOT alter the gut flora?
A. trimethoprim- sulfamethoxazole
B. fluoroquinolones
C. aminoglycosides
D. nitrofurantoins
Answer : D

19. What condition does NOT present as an acute loin pain with fever and marked flank tenderness?
A. ascending UTI causing acute lobar nephronia
B. acute pyelonephritis in a transplanted kidney
C. infected renal subcapsular hematoma
D. perinephric abscess causing septicemia br>Answer : B

20. What is false concerning renal hydatid cysts?
A. might rupture into the collecting system causing (hydatiduria)and renal colic
B. are formed by the eggs of the tapeworm Echinococcus granulosus
C. most cysts are asymptomatic but might manifest as flank mass, dull pain, or hematuria
D. the most reliable diagnostic test uses partially purified hydatid arc 5 antigens in a double-diffusion test
Answer : B

21. What is false concerning antiretroviral medications?
A. multiple antiretroviral drugs can be combined into a single pill
B. might cause radiolucent renal stones
C. can lead to a significant rise in the serum level of PDE5 inhibitors, if taken simultaneously
D. have the advantage of structured treatment interruptions (drug holidays)
Answer : D

22. Asymptomatic bacteriuria should be treated in the following situations:
A. in the elderly
B. in long-term catheterized patient
C. in pregnancy
D. none of the above
Answer : C

23. What is (are) the prominent clinical finding(s) in the diagnosis of acute pyelonephritis?
A. fever, chills, abdominal pain
B. costovertibral angle tenderness
C. hypogastric and loin pain
D. flank pain, dysuria
Answer : B

24. What is false concerning the presentation of prostatitis syndrome?
A. type I could harbor prostate abscess
B. type II presents as intermittent urinary tract infections
C. type III-a presentation might include psychological complaints
D. between 10-15% of men with type IV, have pus cells in their semen but no symptoms
Answer : C

25. HIV infection increases the incidence of the following cancers, EXCEPT:
A. Kaposi sarcoma,
B. Hodgkin lymphoma
C. non-Hodgkin lymphoma
D. cervical cancer
Answer : B

26. Which statement best defines reinfection?
A. a new episode of UTI caused by different species or occurring at long intervals
B. recurrent UTIs caused by the same organism in each instance, classically, at close intervals
C. recurrent UTIs due to failure of medical therapy to eradicate the infection
D. recurrent UTIs due to a persistent pathology that is obstinate to surgery
Answer : A

27. What is false concerning Xanthogranulomatous Pyelonephritis?
A. is most commonly associated with Proteus or E. coli infection
B. is characterized by lipid-laden foamy macrophages
C. the overall prognosis is poor
D. it might involve adjacent structures or organs
Answer : C

28. What is the proper term to describe high bacterial count in urine without pus?
A. asymptomatic bacteriuria
B. sterile pyouria
C. bacterial colonization
D. unresolved bacteriuria
Answer : C

29. What is the most virulent factor for bacterial adherence?
A. P blood group
B. fimbria
C. pili
D. hemolysin
Answer : C

30. Histologically, the pathognomonic finding of Fournier gangrene include:
A. necrosis of the superficial and deep fascial planes
B. fibrinoid thrombosis of the nutrient arterioles
C. polymorphonuclear cell infiltration
D. all of the above
Answer : D

31. What condition is associated with renal papillary necrosis?
A. nephrotic syndrome
B. hypertension
C. sickle cell hemoglobinopathy
D. sarcoidosis
Answer : C

32. As per NIH classification of prostatitis, which type requires no treatment?
A. type I
B. type II
C. type III
D. type IV
Answer : D

33. Which of the following is NOT a first-choice antimicrobial agent for uncomplicated acute cystitis in women?
A. nitrofurantoin monohydrate/macrocrystals
B. trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole
C. ampicillin
D. fosfomycin
Answer : C

34. What are the diagnostic findings on cystometrogram for BPS/IC?
A. discomfort on placing urethral catheter and pain on bladder filling
B. difficulty in zeroing the pressure and diminished response to first cough
C. low filling pressure but high voiding pressure
D. uninhibited bladder contractions with a relative bladder hypotonia
Answer : A

35. What is the laboratory differentiation between type III-a and type III-b prostatitis?
A. the cytological examination of the urine and/or EPS
B. transrectal ultrasonographic examination
C. the presence of ?10 WBCs/HPF in the urine with negative culture in type III-b
D. the positive urine culture, and negative EPS support type III-a
Answer : A

36. What are the most indicative symptoms of chronic pyelonephritis?
A. fever and chills
B. suprapubic pain and pyuria
C. flank pain and tenderness
D. none of the above
Answer : D

37. Which of the following has NO role in bacterial colonization in the prostate?
A. intra-prostatic ductal reflux
B. paraphimosis
C. specific blood groups
D. unprotected anal intercourse
Answer : B

38. What could cause unresolved bacteriuria?
A. drug resistance
B. non-compliance
C. the presence of persistent pathology
D. all of the above
Answer : D

39. What is true regarding chrnic epididymitis symptomatology?
A. pain is dull aching in the scrotum, perineum, inner thighs, and lower abdomen
B. dysuria, frequency, and/or urgency
C. long-standing (> 6 weeks) history of scrotal pain, and tenderness
D. low grade fever, malaise, and urethral discharge
Answer : C

40. When comparing nosocomial to community-acquired UTI, the latter is:
A. 45% are caused by E. coli
B. related to an indwelling urinary catheter in approximately 40% of cases
C. responds fairly to oral antibiotics
D. tends to report higher antibiotic resistance
Answer : C

41. What type of cells is implicated most in the pathogenesis of BPS/IC?
A. histocytes
B. T lymphocytes
C. mast cells
D. B lymphocytes
Answer : C

42. What is false concerning acute pyelonephritis?
A. CBC reveals leucocytosis with predominance of neutrophils
B. contrast CT reveals one or more focal wedge-like swollen regions of the kidney parenchyma, sparing the cortex, and demonstrating reduced enhancement rim sign
C. in children, recurrent acute pyelonephritis might lead to renal scarring
D. in pregnancy, recurrent acute pyelonephritis might lead to preterm labor
Answer : B

43. What is false concerning chronic orchialgia syndrome?
A. it is a constant or intermittent pain of testes for more than 3 months
B. could be due to appendix testis torsion-detorsion
C. could be due to radiculitis resulting from a degenerative lesion in the thoraco-lumber vertebrae
D. could be a result of entrapment neuropathy of ilioinguinal or genitofemoral nerve
Answer : B

44. What is false concerning inverted papilloma of the bladder?
A. It is an endophytic tumor of the transitional urothelium
B. harbors p53 gene mutations
C. presents with hematuria, dysuria, and irritative voiding
D. the lesion requires transurethral resection
Answer : B

45. What is the commonest intra-scrotal pathology in AIDS patients?
A. beaded vas deferens
B. testicular micrilithiasis
C. testicular atrophy
D. epididymal granuloma
Answer : C

46. Ureteral dilation in schistosomiasis could be due to:
A. vesicoureteral reflux
B. stenosis of the lower ureter
C. edematous ureteral wall causing deficient peristalsis
D. any of the above
Answer : D

47. What is false regarding Herpes simplex (HSV) infection?
A. characterized by neurovirulence
B. the incubation period of primary genital herpes is 2 3 weeks
C. HSV can be isolated in the urine
D. HSV-1 infection causes urethritis more often than HSV-2 does
Answer : B

48. A 44 yrs. male presents with recurrent left pyelonephritis and Proteus infection. His kidney is dilated and contains a stone. A renal biopsy showed foamy macrophages with neutrophils and cellular debris. What is the treatment?
A. PCNL after treating the infection
B. cystoscopy and placing a retrograde ureteral stent followed by ESWL
C. perc. nephrostomy and placing antegrade ureteral stent
D. nephrectomy
Answer : D

49. What are the commonest organisms causing acute epididymitis in males younger than 35 yrs.?
A. N. gonorrhea and C. trachomatis
B. E. coli and Pseudomonas species
C. Mycoplasma genitalium and Ureaplasma species
D. Trichomonas vaginalis and Gardnerella vaginalis
Answer : A

50. What are the sequelae of recurrent uncomplicated UTI in young women?
A. minimal
B. chronic persistent infections
C. chronic relapsing infections
D. bouts of chronic pyelonephritis
Answer : A