1000+ Urology Basic Science MCQ for IBPS Clerk [Solved]

1. What is false concerning the collecting system structures of a typical kidney?
A. the renal pelvis could be intra or extra renal
B. the renal pelvis divides into 2 or 3 major calyces
C. major calyces divide into 2 or 3 minor calyces
D. unlike lateral calyces, polar calyces are often paired
Answer : D

2. What are the abnormalities that might accompany complete ureteral duplications?
A. reflux to the upper pole ureter, obstruction to the lower pole ureter
B. reflux to the lower pole ureter, obstruction to the upper pole ureter
C. left ureteropelvic junction obstruction, right ureterocele
D. right ureteropelvic junction obstruction, left ureterocele
Answer : B

3. By which of the following structures, do the fused lower poles of hoarseshoe kidneys get trapped during embryologic ascent?
A. inferior mesenteric artery
B. superior mesenteric artery
C. celiac artery
D. common iliac artery
Answer : A

4. Adult size of bladder capacity is achieved at what age?
A. 5 6 yrs.
B. 7 8 yrs.
C. 9 10 yrs.
D. 11 12 yrs.
Answer : C

5. Regarding multicystic kidneys, at what age does the compensatory renal growth end?
A. at birth
B. 2 years
C. at puberty
D. none of the above
Answer : B

6. What is the narrowest part of the ureter?
A. uretero-pelvic junction
B. uretero-vesical junction
C. where ureters cross the pelvic brim
D. where ureters cross the common iliac bifurcation
Answer : B

7. Which of the following conditions could result in white urine?
A. chyluria
B. bacteriuria
C. phosphaturia
D. all of the above
Answer : D

8. In which organelle in Leydig cell does testosterone synthesis take place?
A. ribosome
B. mitochondria
C. Golgi apparatus
D. endoplasmic reticulum
Answer : D

9. What class of antibiotics might cause vestibular and/or auditory impairment?
A. aminoglycosides
B. ?antipseudomonal penicillins
C. cephalosporins
D. fluoroquinolones
Answer : A

10. At which condition is alpha-fetoprotein most frequently elevated?
A. infiltrating ductal carcinoma of the breast
B. seminoma
C. hepatocellular carcinoma
D. malignant melanoma
Answer : C

11. Which agent should be avoided during living-related donor nephrectomy?
A. ice slush
B. heparin
C. norepinephrine
D. methylene blue
Answer : C

12. In which condition can NOT creatinine level be 1200 mg/dL?
A. an aspirate of pelvic urinoma
B. in untreated end-stage renal failure disease
C. a sample from a wound drain after pyeloplasty
D. a sample from suprapubic catheter
Answer : B

13. Which statement is false concerning capacitation of spermatozoa?
A. occurs after acrosome reaction
B. entails removal of a glycoprotein layer
C. it is a biochemical event of sperm maturation
D. changes occur in the female genital tract
Answer : A

14. Which of the following is NOT a component of the normal semen?
A. zinc
B. fructose
C. prostate-specific antigen
D. alkaline phosphatase
Answer : D

15. What degrades semenogelin and determines the consistency of the seminal coagulum is:
A. spermine
B. acid phosphatase
C. PSA
D. semenoglobulin
Answer : C

16. What is the number of bacteria per high-power field microscopy that matches colony counts of 100,000/mL?
A. 100
B. 50
C. 10
D. 5
Answer : D

17. Where do Cowper`s gland ducts drain into?
A. ejaculatory ducts
B. prostatic urethra
C. membranous urethra
D. bulbous urethra
Answer : D

18. The epithelial component of the prostate consists of all of the following, EXCEPT:
A. basal cells
B. intermediate cells
C. tubulo-columnar cells
D. neuroendocrine cells
Answer : C

19. Which class of the following diuretics could cause erectile dysfunction?
A. loop diuretics
B. thiazide diuretics
C. potassium sparing diuretics
D. osmotic diuretics
Answer : B

20. Which anomaly might accompany horseshoe kidneys?
A. ureteropelvic junction obstruction
B. ureterocele
C. ureteral reflux
D. ureteral atresia
Answer : A

21. Which of the following lab results indicates prerenal failure?
A. serum BUN : creatinine > 20
B. urine [Na] < 30 mEq/L
C. Na excretion fraction < 1
D. all of the above
Answer : D

22. Which lab results indicate poor prognosis of male infertility?
A. azoospermia; normal FSH; increase LH
B. azoopermia; decrease FSH; normal LH
C. oligospermia; increase FSH; normal LH
D. oligospermia; normal FSH; decrease LH
Answer : C

23. Serum testosterone should be measured:
A. at mid-day
B. at the hour of sleep
C. in the morning
D. late afternoon
Answer : C

24. What is the most common cause of hematuria in men over 60 yrs.?
A. kidney stones
B. glomerulonephritis
C. BPH
D. bladder cancer
Answer : C

25. Hematuria of glomerular origin is associated with:
A. significant proteinuria, dysmorphic RBCs, RBC casts
B. glycosuria, eumorphic RBCs, WBC casts
C. hypercalciuria, eumorphic RBCs, granular casts
D. proteinuria, dysmorphic RBCs, hyaline casts
Answer : A

26. Bacterial resistance to antibiotics may occur because of:
A. inherited chromosomal-mediated resistance
B. acquired chromosomal-mediated resistance
C. extrachromosomal-mediated resistance
D. all of the above
Answer : D

27. What causes pink diaper syndrome is (are):
A. Staphylococcus epidermidis in the urine
B. dried urate crystals on the diaper
C. Adenovirus 11 in the urine
D. Candidiasis in the urine
Answer : B

28. Which of the renal artery occlusive conditions, commonly, do NOT affect renal function?
A. intimal fibroplasia
B. medial fibroplasia
C. medial hyperplasia
D. serosal hyperplasia
Answer : B

29. What is false about purple urine bag syndrome?
A. occurs due to the interaction between the chemical components of the urine and polyvinyl chloride material in the urine bag
B. it is commonly symptomless
C. more common in female nursing home residents
D. commonly implicated bacteria are K. pneumoniae, P. mirabilis, E. coli
Answer : A

30. Which statement is false concerning the dipstick method for detecting hematuria?
A. depends on the ability of hemoglobin to oxidize a chromogen indicator
B. negative results need to be confirmed by microscopic examination
C. has a sensitivity of 95% and a specificity of 75%
D. the presence of many epithelial cells suggests skin or vaginal contamination
Answer : B

31. Which of the following explains infertility in liver cirrhosis male patients?
A. decrease plasma estradiol levels
B. increase plasma testosterone-estradiol-binding globulin levels
C. suppression of suprarenal androgens
D. exaggerated pituitary response to feedback hormones
Answer : B

32. Which of the following contributes second to the seminal fluid by volume?
A. seminal vesicles
B. the prostate
C. testes
D. bulbourethral glands
Answer : B

33. At what month of intra-uterine life do testes descend into the scrotum with the aid of the intra-abdominal pressure and the gubernacula?
A. sixth
B. seventh
C. eighth
D. ninth
Answer : B

34. Which statement is false concerning the gubernaculua?
A. degenerate after birth
B. called the caudal genital ligaments
C. help guide the testes down through the inguinal canals
D. represent undifferentiated mesenchyme
Answer : A

35. What fascial layer(s) cover(s) the prostate?
A. Denonvilliers fascia
B. prostatic fascia
C. levator fascia
D. all of the above
Answer : D

36. Which of the following mediates calcium reabsorption in the distal renal tubules?
A. aldosterone
B. hypocalcemia
C. parathyroid hormone
D. vitamin D
Answer : C

37. Which of the following is NOT a side effect of hydrochlorothiazide?
A. hypercholesterolemia
B. hyperuricemia
C. hypoglycemia
D. hypercalcemia
Answer : C

38. How can hyperuricosuria cause calcium oxalate calculi?
A. by increasing oxalate absorption
B. by heterogeneous nucleation
C. by inducing hyperoxaluria
D. by reducing urate crystals saturation
Answer : B

39. Renal blood flow is autoregulated by:
A. sympathetic nervous system
B. parasympathetic nervous system
C. urinary output
D. afferent arteriolar resistance
Answer : D

40. What is the most likely cause of large scrotal hematoma in neonates?
A. clotting factor VIII deficiency
B. clotting factor IX deficiency
C. breech delivery
D. scrotal cavernous haemangioma
Answer : C

41. Which of the following is NOT related to von Hippel-Lindau disease?
A. retinal hemangioblastoma
B. ureteral atresia
C. pheochromocytomas
D. multiple cysts in the pancreas and kidneys
Answer : B

42. What causes ureteral dilation during pregnancy is:
A. mechanical compression by the gravid uterus
B. physiological increase urine flow during pregnancy
C. elevated levels of progesterone
D. reflex inhibition of ureteral contractions
Answer : A

43. Which of the following hormones, primarily, controls spermatogenesis?
A. GnRH
B. testosterone
C. LH
D. FSH
Answer : B