SBI Clerk - Urology Basic Science 1000+ MCQ [Solved] PDF Download

1. What is the earliest clinical sign of puberty in boys?
A. hoarseness of voice
B. enlargement of testes
C. appearance of axillary hair
D. change in body odor
Answer : B

2. Which statement is true about the female urethra?
A. harder to catheterize when compared to the male urethra
B. 4 inch long
C. opens into the vestibule below the clitoris
D. gets wider at the post-menopausal age
Answer : C

3. Which of the following conditions could happen in chronic pancreatitis and malabsorption syndrome with steatorrhea?
A. hyperoxaluria
B. hypercalciuria
C. hyperuricosuria
D. hyperphosphateuria
Answer : A

4. What is the half-life of ?-HCG?
A. 5 7 days
B. 24 36 hours
C. 2 3 days
D. 12 24 hours
Answer : B

5. Which of the following does asymptomatic hematuria workup include?
A. cystoscopy
B. CT urography
C. urine cytology
D. all of the above
Answer : D

6. How many days does spermatogenesis take in the man?
A. 16
B. 32
C. 64
D. 90
Answer : C

7. Branches of what artery travel under the endopelvic fascia form the prostate to the sidewall of the pelvis?
A. obturator artery
B. midrectal artery
C. inferior vesical artery
D. pudendal artery
Answer : D

8. In utero, which hormone stimulates the development of the prostate gland?
A. estradiol
B. DHT
C. FSH
D. testosterone
Answer : B

9. The mature genitourinary system develops from all of the following embryonic sources, EXCEPT:
A. intermediate mesoderm
B. mesothelium of celomic cavity
C. endoderm of the urogenital sinus
D. somatic ectoderm
Answer : D

10. Beside renal excretion of sodium, what does atrial natriuretic hormone cause?
A. constriction of renal afferent arterioles
B. renin inhibition
C. aldosterone stimulation
D. rise in systemic blood pressure
Answer : B

11. Which disease is described best by the following manifestations: grand mal epilepsy, mental retardation, hypertension, angiomyolipoma, adenoma sebaceum, bilateral enlarged kidneys, and normal renal function?
A. autosomal dominant polycystic kidney disease
B. von Hippel-Lindau disease
C. tuberous sclerosis
D. Sturge-Webber syndrome
Answer : C

12. What is false concerning coagulase splitting bacteria (Griess) test?
A. it is a reduction reaction that converts nitrate to nitrite
B. nitrazine reagent papers are used to elicit the reaction
C. it is false negative in diluted urine, on taking vitamin C, and in gram +ve bacteria
D. the reaction takes 4 minutes to complete
Answer : D

13. What do the specialized cells, at the juxtaglomerular apparatus, produce?
A. erythropoietin
B. renin
C. angiotensin I
D. angiotensinogen
Answer : B

14. Which agent should be avoided during living-related donor nephrectomy?
A. ice slush
B. heparin
C. norepinephrine
D. methylene blue
Answer : C

15. Which statement is false concerning the gubernaculua?
A. degenerate after birth
B. called the caudal genital ligaments
C. help guide the testes down through the inguinal canals
D. represent undifferentiated mesenchyme
Answer : A

16. Which layer lies between the superficial and deep inguinal lymph nodes?
A. Scarpa`s fascia
B. fascia lata
C. Dartos fascia
D. Camper`s fascia
Answer : B

17. Which statement is false concerning the dipstick method for detecting hematuria?
A. depends on the ability of hemoglobin to oxidize a chromogen indicator
B. negative results need to be confirmed by microscopic examination
C. has a sensitivity of 95% and a specificity of 75%
D. the presence of many epithelial cells suggests skin or vaginal contamination
Answer : B

18. What is the creatinine clearance in ml/min for a 70 kg man aging 50 yrs. with 1.1 mg/dL serum creatinine?
A. 79.54
B. 44.19
C. 84.15
D. 94.25
Answer : A

19. Which of the following is (are) direct branch(es) of the abdominal aorta?
A. median sacral artery
B. inferior phrenic arteries
C. gonadal arteries
D. all of the above
Answer : D

20. What causes pure testicular feminization is:
A. over estrogen synthesis
B. defective end-organ androgen response
C. extra X chromosome (XXY)
D. failure of genital ridge regression
Answer : B

21. In utero, which hormone stimulates the development of Wolffian ducts?
A. estradiol
B. DHT
C. FSH
D. testosterone
Answer : D

22. What are the posteror relations of the kidneys?
A. quadratus lumborum and diaphragm
B. psoas and diaphragm
C. psoas and latissimus dorsi
D. transversus abdominus and paraspinous
Answer : A

23. What is the best method to evaluate calcium levels in the urine?
A. from early morning urine sample
B. comparing urine and serum calcium at a given time
C. performing 24 urine collection
D. from a mid-stream urine sample
Answer : C

24. What class of antibiotics might cause vestibular and/or auditory impairment?
A. aminoglycosides
B. ?antipseudomonal penicillins
C. cephalosporins
D. fluoroquinolones
Answer : A

25. What is false about purple urine bag syndrome?
A. occurs due to the interaction between the chemical components of the urine and polyvinyl chloride material in the urine bag
B. it is commonly symptomless
C. more common in female nursing home residents
D. commonly implicated bacteria are K. pneumoniae, P. mirabilis, E. coli
Answer : A

26. Which organism is capable of proliferation in the urine and causing urethritis?
A. Ureaplasma urealyticum
B. Chlamydia trachomatis
C. E. coli
D. Neisseria gonorrhea
Answer : A

27. What is the most significant innervation of the vas deferens?
A. sympathetic nervous system
B. parasympathetic nervous system
C. somatic nervous system
D. none of the above
Answer : A

28. Which period of intrauterine life does the process of organ formation (organogenesis) take place?
A. 9 12 weeks
B. 12 15 weeks
C. 15 18 weeks
D. 18 21 weeks
Answer : A

29. What vessels are located in the prostate neurovascular bundle?
A. Watson plexus
B. capsular arteries and veins
C. inferior vesical and midrectal vessels
D. Santorini plexus
Answer : B

30. Which medicine(s) might enhance hypoprothrombinemic effect on oral anticoagulants?
A. allopurinol
B. aminoglycosides
C. cimetidine
D. all of the above
Answer : D

31. What is the approximated bladder capacity of an 8 yrs. girl?
A. 150 ml
B. 200 ml
C. 250 ml
D. 300 ml
Answer : D

32. Which type of urinary casts are solidified TammHorsfall mucoproteins secreted from the tubular epithelial cells of individual nephrons?
A. granular
B. hyaline
C. waxy
D. pigment
Answer : B

33. What causes ureteral dilation during pregnancy is:
A. mechanical compression by the gravid uterus
B. physiological increase urine flow during pregnancy
C. elevated levels of progesterone
D. reflex inhibition of ureteral contractions
Answer : A

34. Where do Cowper`s gland ducts drain into?
A. ejaculatory ducts
B. prostatic urethra
C. membranous urethra
D. bulbous urethra
Answer : D

35. On tracing the IVU dye down, in a dilated ureter, the dilation stops at a level then continues as a normal calibre ureter. What could the pathology be?
A. lower ureteral stricture
B. ureteral valve
C. modified Lich-Gregoire ureteral reimplantation
D. residual dilation of hydroureter
Answer : B

36. What nerve provides the major neural supply to the striated urinary sphincter and levator ani muscle?
A. somatic innervations
B. sympathetic fibers from T11 - L2
C. the pudendal nerve
D. the obturator nerve
Answer : C

37. What is true regarding hematospermia?
A. should be investigated thoroughly like hematuria
B. is rarely associated with significant urologic pathology
C. carries a risk of infertility
D. mandates testicular biopsy
Answer : B

38. Which statement explains the first event in the micturition reflex?
A. opening of internal bladder sphincter
B. fall in urethral pressure
C. rise in intravesical pressure
D. cessation of sphincter EMG activity
Answer : D

39. What fascial layer(s) cover(s) the prostate?
A. Denonvilliers fascia
B. prostatic fascia
C. levator fascia
D. all of the above
Answer : D

40. Serum testosterone should be measured:
A. at mid-day
B. at the hour of sleep
C. in the morning
D. late afternoon
Answer : C

41. Regarding multicystic kidneys, at what age does the compensatory renal growth end?
A. at birth
B. 2 years
C. at puberty
D. none of the above
Answer : B

42. What is false concerning the collecting system structures of a typical kidney?
A. the renal pelvis could be intra or extra renal
B. the renal pelvis divides into 2 or 3 major calyces
C. major calyces divide into 2 or 3 minor calyces
D. unlike lateral calyces, polar calyces are often paired
Answer : D

43. Which part of the prostate is traversed by the ejaculatory duct:
A. central zone
B. peripheral zone
C. transitinal zone
D. fibromuscular stroma
Answer : A

44. In males, which of the following structure(s) can NOT be palpated during digital rectal examination?
A. pelvic floor muscles
B. seminal vesicles
C. anterior surface of the sacrum
D. median lobe of the prostate
Answer : D

45. All of the following conditions are related to obesity syndrome, EXCEPT:
A. super fertility
B. increase aromatization reaction
C. increase resistance to circulating insulin
D. sleep apnea
Answer : A

46. Which ?- adrenergic receptor subtype mediates smooth muscle contraction of the prostate?
A. ?1-A
B. ?2-A
C. ?1-B
D. ?2-B
Answer : A

47. What is the number of bacteria per high-power field microscopy that matches colony counts of 100,000/mL?
A. 100
B. 50
C. 10
D. 5
Answer : D

48. What is the narrowest part of the ureter?
A. uretero-pelvic junction
B. uretero-vesical junction
C. where ureters cross the pelvic brim
D. where ureters cross the common iliac bifurcation
Answer : B

49. What causes pink diaper syndrome is (are):
A. Staphylococcus epidermidis in the urine
B. dried urate crystals on the diaper
C. Adenovirus 11 in the urine
D. Candidiasis in the urine
Answer : B

50. Which agent is most likely to cause hemorrhagic cystitis?
A. cisplatin
B. ifosfamide
C. phosphomycin
D. amphotericin B
Answer : B