1000+ Urology Basic Science Multiple Choice Question Answer [Solved]

1. At which condition is alpha-fetoprotein most frequently elevated?
A. infiltrating ductal carcinoma of the breast
B. seminoma
C. hepatocellular carcinoma
D. malignant melanoma
Answer : C

2. What is false concerning coagulase splitting bacteria (Griess) test?
A. it is a reduction reaction that converts nitrate to nitrite
B. nitrazine reagent papers are used to elicit the reaction
C. it is false negative in diluted urine, on taking vitamin C, and in gram +ve bacteria
D. the reaction takes 4 minutes to complete
Answer : D

3. What causes ureteral dilation during pregnancy is:
A. mechanical compression by the gravid uterus
B. physiological increase urine flow during pregnancy
C. elevated levels of progesterone
D. reflex inhibition of ureteral contractions
Answer : A

4. The commonest neoplasms that metastasize to kidneys come from:
A. breasts
B. thyroids
C. lungs
D. liver
Answer : C

5. What is the most likely cause of large scrotal hematoma in neonates?
A. clotting factor VIII deficiency
B. clotting factor IX deficiency
C. breech delivery
D. scrotal cavernous haemangioma
Answer : C

6. What is the best method to evaluate calcium levels in the urine?
A. from early morning urine sample
B. comparing urine and serum calcium at a given time
C. performing 24 urine collection
D. from a mid-stream urine sample
Answer : C

7. Which hormone measures testicular germ cell function best?
A. LH
B. FSH
C. HCG
D. none of the above
Answer : B

8. What is the most frequent anomaly associated with multicystic renal dysplasia?
A. ureteral atresia
B. vesicoureteral reflux
C. ureteropelvic junction obstruction
D. ureteral duplication
Answer : A

9. Which part of the prostate prevents the seminal fluid from entering the bladder during ejaculation?
A. central zone
B. peripheral zone
C. preprostatic tissue
D. anterior fibromuscular stroma
Answer : C

10. What is the earliest clinical sign of puberty in boys?
A. hoarseness of voice
B. enlargement of testes
C. appearance of axillary hair
D. change in body odor
Answer : B

11. Which action of thigh muscles could be impaired if the obturator nerve was injured during endoscopic resection of bladder tumors?
A. adduction
B. abduction
C. flexion
D. extension
Answer : A

12. Which statement is false concerning the dipstick method for detecting hematuria?
A. depends on the ability of hemoglobin to oxidize a chromogen indicator
B. negative results need to be confirmed by microscopic examination
C. has a sensitivity of 95% and a specificity of 75%
D. the presence of many epithelial cells suggests skin or vaginal contamination
Answer : B

13. Which agent is safe to kidneys?
A. amoxicillin
B. gentamycin
C. diclofenac
D. herb extract
Answer : A

14. Which zone of the prostate originates from the Wolffian duct tissue:
A. central zone
B. peripheral zone
C. transitional zone
D. periurethral glands
Answer : A

15. Which of the following is NOT related to von Hippel-Lindau disease?
A. retinal hemangioblastoma
B. ureteral atresia
C. pheochromocytomas
D. multiple cysts in the pancreas and kidneys
Answer : B

16. Which period of intrauterine life does the process of organ formation (organogenesis) take place?
A. 9 12 weeks
B. 12 15 weeks
C. 15 18 weeks
D. 18 21 weeks
Answer : A

17. By which of the following structures, do the fused lower poles of hoarseshoe kidneys get trapped during embryologic ascent?
A. inferior mesenteric artery
B. superior mesenteric artery
C. celiac artery
D. common iliac artery
Answer : A

18. What is false about indinavir sulfate stones?
A. intratubular crystal formation might occur
B. CT cannot reliably confirm the presence of indinavir calculi
C. stone formation is demonstrated in 80% of patients taking the medication
D. is a protease inhibitor with poor solubility and significant urinary excretion
Answer : C

19. What increases blood volume and pressure in corpora cavernosa during erection is:
A. increase in sympathetic discharge
B. contraction of ischiocavernosa and bulbocavernosa muscles
C. increase arterial flow and closure of emissary veins
D. shunting of blood from the dorsal to the central cavernosal artery
Answer : C

20. What degrades semenogelin and determines the consistency of the seminal coagulum is:
A. spermine
B. acid phosphatase
C. PSA
D. semenoglobulin
Answer : C

21. What could render red urine workup, false positive forhematuria?
A. dehydration
B. myoglobinuria
C. high doses of vitamin C
D. all of the above
Answer : D

22. Which of the following lab results indicates prerenal failure?
A. serum BUN : creatinine > 20
B. urine [Na] < 30 mEq/L
C. Na excretion fraction < 1
D. all of the above
Answer : D

23. What are the first and second most common zones from where prostate cancers arise?
A. central then transitional
B. peripheral then transitional
C. peripheral then central
D. transitional then central
Answer : B

24. What is the most common cause of hematuria in men over 60 yrs.?
A. kidney stones
B. glomerulonephritis
C. BPH
D. bladder cancer
Answer : C

25. Which statement is false concerning the gubernaculua?
A. degenerate after birth
B. called the caudal genital ligaments
C. help guide the testes down through the inguinal canals
D. represent undifferentiated mesenchyme
Answer : A

26. What is the function of PSA in semen?
A. increases semen volume
B. has antimicrobial activity
C. liquefies the seminal coagulum
D. decreases semen pH
Answer : C

27. Renal blood flow is autoregulated by:
A. sympathetic nervous system
B. parasympathetic nervous system
C. urinary output
D. afferent arteriolar resistance
Answer : D

28. Which of the following is NOT a sex accessory tissue?
A. the prostate gland
B. seminal vesicles
C. epididymi
D. bulbourethral glands
Answer : C

29. How can hyperuricosuria cause calcium oxalate calculi?
A. by increasing oxalate absorption
B. by heterogeneous nucleation
C. by inducing hyperoxaluria
D. by reducing urate crystals saturation
Answer : B

30. When should a 70 yrs. man with 40 ml prostate volume, and total PSA of 2.0 ng/ml, go for a prostate biopsy?
A. if PSA reading had exceeded 2.7 ng/ml over 12 months
B. if free PSA reading was less than 0.4 ng/ml
C. if total PSA reading was greater than 8 ng/ml
D. any of the above
Answer : D

31. Which type of urinary casts are solidified TammHorsfall mucoproteins secreted from the tubular epithelial cells of individual nephrons?
A. granular
B. hyaline
C. waxy
D. pigment
Answer : B

32. At what month of intra-uterine life do testes descend into the scrotum with the aid of the intra-abdominal pressure and the gubernacula?
A. sixth
B. seventh
C. eighth
D. ninth
Answer : B

33. All of the following develop from the mesonephric ducts, EXCEPT:
A. vas deferens
B. seminal vesicles
C. appendix epididymis
D. appendix testis
Answer : D

34. Which statement regarding post-obstructive diuresis (POD) is false?
A. urine production exceeding 200 ml/hr for 2 consecutive hours or producing greater than 3 L of urine in 24 hours is diagnostic of POD
B. pathologic POD can be exacerbated by excessive fluid replacement
C. the replacement fluid choice is ringer lactate
D. fluid resuscitation depends on the degree of dehydration
Answer : C

35. Which artery(ies) supply(ies) the prostate?
A. middle rectal
B. inferior vesical
C. a & b
D. none of the above
Answer : C

36. Which part of the male urethra is the narrowest?
A. the membranous
B. the bladder neck
C. the bulbous
D. the external urethral meatus
Answer : D

37. Which of the following is NOT a side effect of hydrochlorothiazide?
A. hypercholesterolemia
B. hyperuricemia
C. hypoglycemia
D. hypercalcemia
Answer : C

38. Which of the following is (are) direct branch(es) of the abdominal aorta?
A. median sacral artery
B. inferior phrenic arteries
C. gonadal arteries
D. all of the above
Answer : D

39. In which condition can NOT creatinine level be 1200 mg/dL?
A. an aspirate of pelvic urinoma
B. in untreated end-stage renal failure disease
C. a sample from a wound drain after pyeloplasty
D. a sample from suprapubic catheter
Answer : B

40. What is the most significant innervation of the vas deferens?
A. sympathetic nervous system
B. parasympathetic nervous system
C. somatic nervous system
D. none of the above
Answer : A

41. What is the narrowest part of the ureter?
A. uretero-pelvic junction
B. uretero-vesical junction
C. where ureters cross the pelvic brim
D. where ureters cross the common iliac bifurcation
Answer : B

42. Beside renal excretion of sodium, what does atrial natriuretic hormone cause?
A. constriction of renal afferent arterioles
B. renin inhibition
C. aldosterone stimulation
D. rise in systemic blood pressure
Answer : B

44. Which of the prostate medications could result in significant hypotension?
A. finasteride
B. prazosin
C. silodosin
D. vardenafil
Answer : B

45. The manifestations of autonomic dysreflexia include:
A. hypotension and tachycardia
B. hypotension and bradycardia
C. hypertension and tachycardia
D. hypertension and bradycardia
Answer : D

46. What antibiotic could result in red man syndrome?
A. vancomycin
B. clindamycin
C. streptomycin
D. tobramycin
Answer : A

47. Which of the following does asymptomatic hematuria workup include?
A. cystoscopy
B. CT urography
C. urine cytology
D. all of the above
Answer : D

48. What class of antibiotics might cause vestibular and/or auditory impairment?
A. aminoglycosides
B. ?antipseudomonal penicillins
C. cephalosporins
D. fluoroquinolones
Answer : A

49. What causes pink diaper syndrome is (are):
A. Staphylococcus epidermidis in the urine
B. dried urate crystals on the diaper
C. Adenovirus 11 in the urine
D. Candidiasis in the urine
Answer : B

50. Which agent is most likely to cause hemorrhagic cystitis?
A. cisplatin
B. ifosfamide
C. phosphomycin
D. amphotericin B
Answer : B