Urology Basic Science MCQ Solved Paper for LIC ADO

1. Which of the following does NOT affect serum creatinine?
A. gender
B. age
C. obstructing stone at left lower ureter
D. rhabdomyolysis
Answer : C

2. Which of the following is (are) direct branch(es) of the abdominal aorta?
A. median sacral artery
B. inferior phrenic arteries
C. gonadal arteries
D. all of the above
Answer : D

3. Which of the following does asymptomatic hematuria workup include?
A. cystoscopy
B. CT urography
C. urine cytology
D. all of the above
Answer : D

4. What is false concerning the urinary bladder anatomy?
A. as it distends, it peels off the peritoneum from the abdominal wall
B. the interureteric ridge is located between the 2 ureteric orifices and the uvula vesicae
C. Waldeyer`s sheath covers only the distal ureter and forms the deep trigone
D. in adults, it is percussible over the abdomen when contains at least 150 ml
Answer : B

5. Which disease is described best by the following manifestations: grand mal epilepsy, mental retardation, hypertension, angiomyolipoma, adenoma sebaceum, bilateral enlarged kidneys, and normal renal function?
A. autosomal dominant polycystic kidney disease
B. von Hippel-Lindau disease
C. tuberous sclerosis
D. Sturge-Webber syndrome
Answer : C

6. Which statement explains the first event in the micturition reflex?
A. opening of internal bladder sphincter
B. fall in urethral pressure
C. rise in intravesical pressure
D. cessation of sphincter EMG activity
Answer : D

7. What is the best method to evaluate calcium levels in the urine?
A. from early morning urine sample
B. comparing urine and serum calcium at a given time
C. performing 24 urine collection
D. from a mid-stream urine sample
Answer : C

8. Serum testosterone should be measured:
A. at mid-day
B. at the hour of sleep
C. in the morning
D. late afternoon
Answer : C

9. What is the best initial therapy for hyponatremic dehydration?
A. administration of hypertonic saline
B. administration of crystalloid
C. administration of normal saline
D. administration of ringer lactate
Answer : C

10. At what month of intra-uterine life do testes descend into the scrotum with the aid of the intra-abdominal pressure and the gubernacula?
A. sixth
B. seventh
C. eighth
D. ninth
Answer : B

11. Which of the following is NOT a component of the normal semen?
A. zinc
B. fructose
C. prostate-specific antigen
D. alkaline phosphatase
Answer : D

12. What is false concerning fosfomycin antibiotic?
A. has a limited cross-resistance with most common antibacterial agents
B. causes injection site reactions
C. is active against most uropathogens
D. is effective as a single-dose agent
Answer : B

13. What is the most likely cause of large scrotal hematoma in neonates?
A. clotting factor VIII deficiency
B. clotting factor IX deficiency
C. breech delivery
D. scrotal cavernous haemangioma
Answer : C

14. What antibiotic could result in red man syndrome?
A. vancomycin
B. clindamycin
C. streptomycin
D. tobramycin
Answer : A

15. Which ?- adrenergic receptor subtype mediates smooth muscle contraction of the prostate?
A. ?1-A
B. ?2-A
C. ?1-B
D. ?2-B
Answer : A

16. Which statement is false concerning the gubernaculua?
A. degenerate after birth
B. called the caudal genital ligaments
C. help guide the testes down through the inguinal canals
D. represent undifferentiated mesenchyme
Answer : A

17. How long post bilateral orchiectomy, will patients be functionally castrated?
A. immediately
B. after 2 hrs.
C. after 12 hrs.
D. after 24 hrs.
Answer : B

18. What is false concerning renal vasculature?
A. there are 4 surgical segments of the kidney, based on the segmental artery distribution
B. along the kidney convexity, there is an avascular plane
C. there are no collaterals between segmental arteries
D. in < 10%, the posterior branch is the first to branch off the renal artery
Answer : D

19. Which statement regarding post-obstructive diuresis (POD) is false?
A. urine production exceeding 200 ml/hr for 2 consecutive hours or producing greater than 3 L of urine in 24 hours is diagnostic of POD
B. pathologic POD can be exacerbated by excessive fluid replacement
C. the replacement fluid choice is ringer lactate
D. fluid resuscitation depends on the degree of dehydration
Answer : C

20. Which drug does NOT result in urinary retention?
A. terazosin, antihypertensive
B. benzodiazepines, psychotropic medicine
C. levodopa, anti-Parkinsonism medicine
D. brimonidine, glaucoma eye drops
Answer: A

21. What are the first and second most common zones from where prostate cancers arise?
A. central then transitional
B. peripheral then transitional
C. peripheral then central
D. transitional then central
Answer : B

22. From where does the main parasympathetic efferent innervation to the pelvic plexus arise?
A. S1
B. S2-S4
C. T11-L2
D. L3-S1
Answer : B

23. To which region does pain, from the left mid ureter, refer to?
A. the loin region
B. the inguinal region
C. the umbilical region
D. the penis or clitoris
Answer : B

24. Which period of intrauterine life does the process of organ formation (organogenesis) take place?
A. 9 12 weeks
B. 12 15 weeks
C. 15 18 weeks
D. 18 21 weeks
Answer : A

25. When should a 70 yrs. man with 40 ml prostate volume, and total PSA of 2.0 ng/ml, go for a prostate biopsy?
A. if PSA reading had exceeded 2.7 ng/ml over 12 months
B. if free PSA reading was less than 0.4 ng/ml
C. if total PSA reading was greater than 8 ng/ml
D. any of the above
Answer : D

26. Bacterial resistance to antibiotics may occur because of:
A. inherited chromosomal-mediated resistance
B. acquired chromosomal-mediated resistance
C. extrachromosomal-mediated resistance
D. all of the above
Answer : D

27. Which of the following is NOT related to von Hippel-Lindau disease?
A. retinal hemangioblastoma
B. ureteral atresia
C. pheochromocytomas
D. multiple cysts in the pancreas and kidneys
Answer : B

28. Which part of the male urethra is the narrowest?
A. the membranous
B. the bladder neck
C. the bulbous
D. the external urethral meatus
Answer : D

29. Which of the following does NOT increase PSA value?
A. trauma to the prostate
B. digital rectal examination
C. urinary retention
D. prostatitis
Answer : B

30. What is the most frequent anomaly associated with multicystic renal dysplasia?
A. ureteral atresia
B. vesicoureteral reflux
C. ureteropelvic junction obstruction
D. ureteral duplication
Answer : A

31. What nerve provides the major neural supply to the striated urinary sphincter and levator ani muscle?
A. somatic innervations
B. sympathetic fibers from T11 - L2
C. the pudendal nerve
D. the obturator nerve
Answer : C

32. Which hormone measures testicular germ cell function best?
A. LH
B. FSH
C. HCG
D. none of the above
Answer : B

33. Which type of renal tubular acidosis (RTA) is more likely to form renal stones?
A. type 1
B. type 2
C. type 3
D. type 4
Answer : A

34. Hematuria of glomerular origin is associated with:
A. significant proteinuria, dysmorphic RBCs, RBC casts
B. glycosuria, eumorphic RBCs, WBC casts
C. hypercalciuria, eumorphic RBCs, granular casts
D. proteinuria, dysmorphic RBCs, hyaline casts
Answer : A

35. Which statement is false concerning the epididymis?
A. each epididymis can be palpable at the postero-lateral surface of the testis
B. has 3 parts; head, body, and tail
C. new batches of sperms stay in the epididymis around 2 days for maturation
D. shares the same blood supply of the testis
Answer : C

36. Beside renal excretion of sodium, what does atrial natriuretic hormone cause?
A. constriction of renal afferent arterioles
B. renin inhibition
C. aldosterone stimulation
D. rise in systemic blood pressure
Answer : B

37. What are the posterior relations of the kidneys?
A. quadratus lumborum and diaphragm
B. psoas and diaphragm
C. psoas and latissimus dorsi
D. transversus abdominus and paraspinous
Answer : A

38. Which nephron segment contains the most diluted urine in central diabetes insipidus patient?
A. proximal convoluted tubules
B. distal convoluted tubules
C. collecting duct
D. loop of Henle
Answer : C

39. What does apoptosis mean?
A. programmed cell death
B. new vascular formation
C. uninhibited neural stimulation
D. premature muscular contraction
Answer : A

40. Which of the following conditions could result in white urine?
A. chyluria
B. bacteriuria
C. phosphaturia
D. all of the above
Answer : D

41. Which artery is NOT a branch of the anterior division of internal iliac artery?
A. superior vesical artery
B. inferior vesical artery
C. superior gluteal artery
D. inferior gluteal artery
Answer : C

42. What is false about purple urine bag syndrome?
A. occurs due to the interaction between the chemical components of the urine and polyvinyl chloride material in the urine bag
B. it is commonly symptomles
C. more common in female nursing home residents
D. commonly implicated bacteria are K. pneumoniae, P. mirabilis, E. coli
Answer : A

43. What is the nature of the prostate-specific antigen?
A. protease
B. lyase
C. carboxylase
D. hydrolase
Answer : A

44. Which of the prostate medications could result in retrograde ejaculation?
A. tamsulosin
B. doxazosin
C. dutasteride
D. alfuzosin
Answer : A

45. Regarding renal ectopia, usually, the adrenals:
A. are cross ectopic
B. are at their normal position
C. travel with the kidneys
D. undergo ischemic atrophy
Answer : B

46. Which part of the prostate prevents the seminal fluid from entering the bladder during ejaculation?
A. central zone
B. peripheral zone
C. preprostatic tissue
D. anterior fibromuscular stroma
Answer : C

47. Which of the following does NOT increase in prostate cancer?
A. human kallikrein 2
B. pro-PSA
C. free PSA
D. complexed PSA
Answer : C

48. During fluoroscopy, what is the main source of radiation hazards that urologists could be exposed to?
A. scattered radiation from the unleaded wall
B. scattered radiation from the patient
C. scattered radiation from the floor and ceiling
D. radiation from the primary beam
Answer : B

49. At which type of renal tubular acidosis (RTA), typically, potassium levels increase?
A. type 1
B. type 2
C. type 3
D. type 4
Answer : D

50. What is the nerve supply of the adrenal gland?
A. sympathetic to the medulla
B. parasympathetic to the medulla
C. sympathetic to the cortex
D. parasympathetic to the cortex
Answer : A