SBI Clerk - Airport Engineering 1000+ MCQ [Solved] PDF Download

1. For the taxiways, the following statement is true
A. The maximum longitudinal grade is 3%
B. The permissible rate of change of grade is 1%
C. The permissible transverse grade is 1.5%
D. All the above
Answer : D

2. From the end of an instrumental runway, the approach surface rises outwards
A. 1 in 20
B. 1 in 30
C. 1 in 40
D. 1 in 50
Answer : D

3. As per UK design criteria, if LCN of aircraft is between 1.25 to 1.5 times the LCN of pavement, then the number of movements allowed are
A. Zero
B. 300
C. 3000
D. Unrestricted
Answer : B

4. For the proposed runway stated in if the aerodrome reference temperature is 17°.2, the net designed length of the runway is
A. 2716 m
B. 2816 m
C. 2916 m
D. 3016 m
Answer : B

5. According to I.C.A.O. the slope of transitional surface at right angles to the centre line of runway, is kept
A. 1 in 4
B. 1 in 5
C. 1 in 6
D. 1 in 7
Answer : D

6. The capacity of parallel runway pattern depends upon
A. Weather conditions and navigational aids available
B. Lateral spacing between two runways and weather conditions
C. Lateral spacing between two runways and navigational aids available
D. Lateral spacing between two runways, weather conditions and navigational aids available.
Answer : D

7. The fuse large includes
A. Passengers chamber
B. Pilot's cabin
C. Tail of aircraft
D. All the above
Answer : D

8. As per ICAO recommendation, minimum width of safety area for instrumental runway should be
A. 78 m
B. 150 m
C. 300 m
D. 450 m
Answer : C

9. Pick up the correct statement from the following:
A. Approximate geometric centre of the landing area, is called air port reference point
B. The boundaries of horizontal surface and conical surface are marked with reference to air port reference point
C. The location of the air port on a map is the position of air port reference point
D. All the above
Answer : D

10. The total length of a runway is 1000 m. The elevation at distance 0,200 m, 400 m, 600 m, 800 m and 1000 m are 100.0 m, 99.2 m, 101.0 m, 101.8 m, 101.4 m and 101.0 m respectively. The effective gradient of runway will be.
A. 0.10 %
B. 0.26 %
C. 0.43 %
D. 0.65 %
Answer : B

11. The main disadvantage of angle nose out parking configuration of aircraft is that the
A. Aircraft rear loading door is far away from terminal building.
B. Hot blast is directed towards the terminal building
C. Overall apron area required is more
D. All the above
Answer : B

12. The landing and takeoff of the air craft is made against the direction of wind. In no case the centre line of the runway should make an angle with the wind direction exceeding
A. 10°
B. 20°
C. 30°
D. 40°
Answer : C

13. The minimum width of clearway is
A. 50 m
B. 100 m
C. 150 m
D. 250 m
Answer : C

14. If the width of the approach area near the runway end is 150 m, the width of the approach area at a distance of 3 kilometres from runway end will be
A. 1500 m
B. 1200 m
C. 1000 m
D. 800 m
Answer : B

15. Runway threshold is indicated by a series of parallel lines starting from a distance of
A. 3 m from runway end
B. 6 m from runway end
C. 10 m from runway end
D. 15 m from runway end
Answer : B

16. Pick up the correct statement from the following:
A. Runway edge from the landing side, is called threshold
B. Localizer indicates to the pilot his position with respect to the proposed alignment
C. The glide slope indicates the correct angle of descent
D. All the above
Answer : D

17. The cruising speed of the aircraft is 500 kmph. If there is a head wind of 50 kmph, then the air speed and ground speed of the aircraft respectively will be
A. 450 kmph and 500 kmph
B. 500 kmph and 450 kmph
C. 450 kmph and 450 kmph
D. 500 kmph and 500 kmph
Answer : A

18. According to the International Civil Aviation Organisation (I.C.A.O.), the runway lengths of aerodromes, have been coded by
A. Seven English alphabets
B. Last Seven English alphabets
C. First Seven English alphabets
D. First seven natural numbers
Answer : C

19. In approach areas of runways equipped with instrumental landing facilities any object within 4.5 km distance from runway end shall be considered as an obstruction if its height is more than
A. 20 m
B. 30 m
C. 45 m
D. 51 m
Answer : B

20. The length of clear zone for none instrument runway of a small aircraft is
A. 150 m
B. 300 m
C. 600 m
D. 750 m
Answer : B

21. Assertion A : Airport capacity during IFR conditions is usually less than that during VFR conditions. Reason R: During clear weather condition (VFR), the aircrafts on final approach to runway can be spaced closer during poor visibility conditions. Select your answer based on the coding system given below:
A. Both A and R is true and R is the correct explanation of A
B. Both A and R is true but R is not the correct explanation of A
C. A is true but R is false
D. A is false but R is true
Answer : A

22. Pick up the correct statement from the following:
A. Tar concrete pavements are suitable if fuel spillage occurs
B. Rubberised tar concrete hot blast as well as spillage
C. Epoxy asphalt concrete sets in very small time
D. All the above
Answer : D

23. Pick up the correct statement from the following:
A. The basic length of a runway is increased at a rate of 7% per 300 m of elevation of M.S.L.
B. The standard temperature at the site is obtained by reducing the standard sea level temperature of 15°C at the rate of 6.5°C per 1000 m rise in elevation
C. The aerodrome reference temperature is the monthly mean of the mean daily temperature for the hottest month of the year
D. All the above
Answer : D

24. As per ICAO, for A, B, and C type of airports, maximum effective, transverse and longitudinal grades in percentage respectively are
A. 1.0, 1.5 and 1.5
B. 1.0, 1.5 and 2.0
C. 1.5, 1.5 and 2.0
D. 2.0, 2.0 and 2.0
Answer : A

25. The best direction of a runway is along the direction of
A. Longest line on wind rose diagram
B. Shortest line on the wind rose diagram
C. Line clear of wind rose diagram
D. None of these
Answer : A

26. Beaufort scale is used to determine
A. Strength of winds
B. Direction of winds
C. Height of air-crafts
D. None of these
Answer : A

27. Zero fuel weight of an aircraft is:
A. Equal to empty operating weight
B. Equal to maximum landing weight
C. Less than empty operating weight
D. Equal to sum of empty operating weight and the maximum pay load
Answer : D

28. Which of the following is used for servicing and repairs of the aircraft?
A. Apron
B. Hanger
C. Terminal building
D. Holding apron
Answer : B

29. International Civil Aviation Organisation (I.C.A.O.) was set up at Montreal (Canada), in
A. 1929
B. 1939
C. 1947
D. 1950
Answer : C

30. Assertion A: The width of a taxiway is smaller than the runway width. Reason R: The speed of the aircraft on a taxiway is greater than that on runway. Select your answer based on coding system given below
A. Both A and R is true and R is the correct explanation of A
B. Both A and R is true but R is not the correct explanation of A
C. A is true but R is false
D. A is false but R is true
Answer : C

31. The bearing of the longest line of a wind rose is S 45° E, the bearing of the runway will be numbered
A. 135°
B. 31
C. 13
D. Both (c) and (d)
Answer : D

32. The threshold markings are
A. 4 m wide
B. 1 m clear space between adjacent
C. Placed symmetrically on either side of the runway centre line
D. All the above
Answer : D

33. Calm period is the percentage of time during which wind intensity is less than
A. 4.8 kmph
B. 6.4 kmph
C. 8.0 kmph
D. 9.6 kmph
Answer : B

34. The engine failure case for determining the basic runway length may require
A. Only clearway
B. Only stop way
C. Either a clearway or a stop-way
D. Either a clearway or a stop-way or both
Answer : D

35. To cope up high temperature of 196°C, the taxi ways and aprons are constructed with
A. Asphaltic concrete
B. Rubberised tar concrete
C. Plain concrete
D. All the above
Answer : D

36. Maximum gross takeoff weight of an aircraft is
A. Equal to the maximum structural landing weight
B. Less than the maximum structural landing weight
C. More than the maximum structural landing weight
D. Equal to the empty operating weight plus the payload
Answer : C

37. The width and interval of transverse centre line bars along the extended centre line of runway, in approach lighting system are
A. 3 m and 30 m
B. 4.2 m and 30 m
C. 4.2 m and 50 m
D. 3 m and 45 m
Answer : B

38. Airport elevation is the reduced level above M.S.L. of
A. Control tower
B. Highest point of the landing area
C. Lowest point of the landing area
D. None of these
Answer : B

39. Pick up the correct statement from the following:
A. F.I.R. stands for flight information regions
B. Radius of control area is 160 km
C. Radius of control zone is 40 km
D. All the above
Answer : D

40. The meteorological condition which influences the size and location of an air port is
A. Atmosphere pressure
B. Air density
C. Reduced level
D. All the above
Answer : D

41. An airport has 4 gates. If the weighted average gate occupancy time is 30 minutes and gate utilisation factor is 0.5, then the capacity of the gate will be
A. 1 aircraft per hour
B. 2 aircrafts per hour
C. 4 aircrafts per hour
D. 16 aircrafts per hour
Answer : C

42. If lift off distance of an craft is 2000 m, the clear way at the end of the runway should not be less than
A. 145 m
B. 152.5 m
C. 162.5 m
D. 172.5 m
Answer : D

43. The lift off distance is the distance along the centre of the runway between the starting point and
A. End of the runway
B. End of stop-way
C. Point where air craft becomes air borne
D. Point where air craft attains a height of 10.7 m
Answer : A

44. Wing loading of an aircraft is
A. Load of the wings
B. Gross total weight of the aircraft/ load of the wings
C. Gross total weight of the aircraft/ wing area
D. Gross total weight of the aircraft/total available H.P of engines
Answer : C

45. Pick up the correct statement from the following:
A. Minimum turning radius of aircrafts decides the size of the apron and the radius of the curves at taxi-ends
B. Take off and landing distances for an aircraft, determine the minimum runway length
C. The length of the normal haul of the air craft decides the frequency of operation
D. All the above
Answer : D

46. In Intrumental landing system, the middle markers are located
A. Along the extended centre line of runway end
B. About 1 km. ahead of the runway threshold
C. At the runway threshold
D. About 7 km. ahead of the runway threshold
Answer : B

47. Pick up the correct statement from the following:
A. Air screw converts the energy given by the engine into speed
B. The propellers which are driven by turbine engines, are technically called turboprops
C. The aircrafts which obtain the thrust directly from turbine engine, are called turbo-jets
D. All the above
Answer : D

48. For supersonic transport aircraft, the minimum turning radius of taxiway is
A. 60 m
B. 120 m
C. 180 m
D. 240 m
Answer : C

49. Castor angle is defined as the angle
A. Formed by the longitudinal axis of the aircraft and the direction of movement of the nose gear
B. Between the direction of wind and the longitudinal axis of the runway
C. Between the true speed of the aircraft and the crosswind component
D. Between the horizontal and the fuselage axis
Answer : A

50. Consider the following statements: Wind rose diagram is used for the purposes of
1. Runway orientation
2. Estimating the runway capacity
3. Geometric design of holding apron of these statements
A. 1 and 2 are correct
B. 2 and 3 are correct
C. 1 and 3 are correct
D. 1 alone is correct
Answer : D