Senile enlargement of the prostate 1000+ MCQ with answer for JEE Main

1. What class(es) of medications decrease(s) IPSS questionnaire points?
A. calcium channel blockers
B. antihistamines
C. antidepressants
D. cold medications containing pseudoephedrine
Answer : A

2. Preferably, what is the last part of the prostate to be removed while performing TURP?
A. bladder neck
B. apex
C. median lobe
D. para-collecular
Answer : B

3. Which statement is false concerning transurethral microwave therapy (TUMT) for BPH treatment:
A. induces nerve degeneration in the prostate and tissue necrosis
B. frequently results in transient urinary retention
C. frequently leads to erectile dysfunction
D. the high-energy platform is superior to the low-energy with regard to clinical efficacy
Answer : C

4. The probability of developing acute urinary retention is related to:
A. the neurological status of the patient
B. PVR
C. severity of obstructive LUTS
D. all of the above
Answer : D

5. a. small fibrous glands
A. the presence of prostate cancer
B. previous prostatectomy
C. all of the above
D. . Robot-assisted laparoscopic prostatectomy for prostatic adenoma has the following advantage over TURP:
Answer : C

6. On measuring the prostate volume during endoscopy:
A. each centimeter over the normal 2-cm prostate urethral length equates
B. an additional 12 g in prostate weight
C. each centimeter over the normal 2.5-cm prostate urethral length equates
D. an additional 10 g in prostate weight
Answer : B

7. A 50% reduction of prostate size is expected after a 6-month therapy with:
A. alfuzosin
B. silodosin
C. finasteride
D. tamsulosin
Answer : C

8. What is false concerning bladder and prostate histology in BPH?
A. obstruction results in bladder smooth muscle hypertrophy and myofibroblasts deposition
B. BPH occurs chiefly in the transitional zone and periurethral tissues
C. BPH microscopical changes begin in early thirties
D. histologic findings of chronic prostatitis are common in BPH
Answer : A

9. To achieve better hemostasis in prostate laser surgery, what is the ideal wavelength that is easily absorbed by hemoglobin?
A. 532 nm
B. 694 nm
C. 755 nm
D. 1064 nm
Answer : A

10. When comparing HoLEP to open prostatectomy for a 70 g prostatic adenoma removal; what parameter goes in favor of the latter?
A. operation time
B. duration of in-hospital stay
C. amount of blood transfused
D. time to catheter removal
Answer : A

11. a. lesser chance of post-operative urethral stricture
A. milder postoperative hematuria
B. tension-free bladder closure
C. extra-peritoneal approach
D. . When comparing TURP to open prostatectomy for removing prostatic adenoma, the latter has the following advantages, EXCEPT:
Answer : D

12. In an 80 yrs. diabetic man on insulin for 35 yrs.; what would be the proper sequence of developing the following obstructing BPH/LUTS?
A. frequency, over-flow incontinence, straining, retention
B. straining, frequency, over-flow incontinence, retention
C. straining, frequency, retention, over-flow incontinence
D. frequency, straining, retention, over-flow incontinence
Answer : D

13. Which of the following is NOT classified as a complicated LUTS?
A. LUTS with neurologic disease
B. LUTS with post-void dribble
C. LUTS with suspicious DRE
D. LUTS with hematuria
Answer : D

14. On treating BPH, which procedure provides the best tissue preservation for pathological examination?
A. TURP
B. TUIP
C. HoLEP
D. HoLRP
Answer : C

15. On treating BPH, which procedure carries the risk of morcellator injury to the bladder?
A. PVP
B. HoLEP
C. HoLRP
D. TUMT
Answer : B

16. a. ?-adrenergic blocker
A. combination of ?-adrenergic blocker and 5?-reductase inhibitor
B. watchful waiting
C. TURP
D. . What is the commonest cause of LUTS in men beyond middle age?
Answer : C

17. Prostatic nodules palpated on DRE might indicate:
A. tuberculous prostatitis
B. prostatic cancer
C. inspissated prostatic abscess
D. any of the above
Answer : D

18. Which statement is false regarding laser enucleation of the Prostate (HoLEP)?
A. provides tissue preservation for pathological examination
B. treats any size of prostatic adenoma
C. follows anatomic planes to remove the prostate in lobes
D. urinary incontinence is a significant drawback after HoLEP
Answer : D

19. An ED patient on low-dose tadalafil develops BPH. What medication should he avoid?
A. tamsulosin
B. alfuzosin
C. doxazosin
D. silodosin
Answer : C

20. What is (are) the favorite criterion (criteria) to prescribe 5?- reductase inhibitors for BPH cases?
A. PSA > 1.5 ng/L
B. prostate volume > 40 ml
C. IPSS > 19
D. a & b
Answer : D

21. A BPH patient presents with retention of urine. He is Catheterized. Later, he underwent TURP. When would the highest PSA value be?
A. before catheterization
B. after catheterization and before TURP
C. immediately after TURP
D. 2 weeks after TURP
Answer : C

22. What is true regarding the use of ?-blockers and the development of Intraoperative Floppy Iris Syndrome (IFIS)?
A. complicates approximately 0.7% of cataract surgery cases
B. manifests as poor preoperative pupil dilation, iris prolapse, and progressive intraoperative miosis
C. it could persist long after the discontinuation of tamsulosin
D. intraoperative lidocaine reduces its incidence in patients taking ?- adrenergic inhibitors
Answer : C

23. In BPH patients, which of the following measures reduces PSA value by one-half?
A. 2 weeks after performing prostatic urethral lift
B. 6-month treatment with 5?-reductase inhibitors
C. after placing a stent in the prostatic urethra
D. immediately after removing one-half of the prostate by TURP
Answer : B

24. In men with LUTS, which of the following is NOT a compelling indication for upper urinary tract imaging?
A. urolithiasis
B. receiving chemotherapy
C. upper tract surgery
D. painless hematuria
Answer : B

25. What is the initial response of the detrusor muscle to obstruction?
A. increased intravesical pressure
B. increased detrusor pressure
C. increase collagen deposition in the detrusor
D. detrusor smooth muscle hypertrophy
Answer : A

26. BPH/LUTS patients when present with mild creatinine elevation, are advised to do:
A. total and free PSA
B. renal ultrasonography
C. creatinine clearance
D. uroflowmetry
Answer : B

27. What is false regarding prostate embolization for BPH?
A. the aim is to occlude the internal iliac vessels
B. there is a considerable radiation risk during the procedure
C. bilateral embolization provides better results
D. eye protection is not required
Answer : A

28. What is (are) the possible complication(s) of prostate stents?
A. hematuria and infections
B. migration and encrustation of the stent
C. irritative urinary symptoms and painful ejaculation
D. all of the above
Answer : D

29. What drug prevents recurrent gross hematuria secondary to BPH?
A. enoxaparin
B. silodosin
C. finasteride
D. tolterodine
Answer : C

30. A 55 yrs. male patient with familial BPH, IPSS 9, PSA 23ng/ml, prostate size 31 cc, PVR 54 cc, on watchful waiting management. Next step should be:
A. tamsulosin 0.8 mg
B. reassurance
C. repeat total and free PSA
D. diagnostic cystoscopy
Answer : C

31. PSA value has a strong correlation with:
A. IPSS
B. post void residual
C. prostate volume
D. Q-max at uroflowmetry
Answer : C

32. What is false concerning TURP syndrome?
A. symptoms begin with a serum sodium of less than 120 mEq/L
B. the mortality is 2.7-5.8 %
C. manifestations rely on acute changes in the intravascular volume and plasma solute concentrations
D. the preferred height of irrigating fluid is 60 cm above the patient
Answer : B

33. a. management of concomitant Hutch diverticulum
A. removing small bladder stones
B. better access to prostatic fossa
C. technically, easier trigonization
D. . When comparing retropubic to suprapubic prostatectomy for removing prostatic adenoma, the former has the advantage of:
Answer : B

34. What statement is true regarding post-void residual of urine (PVR)?
A. nearly all men have PVR of less than 12 ml
B. it predicts the outcome of surgical treatment
C. it correlates well with BPH/LUTS
D. it is diagnostic for bladder outlet obstruction
Answer : A

35. In BPH patients, total PSA level correlates to:
A. the glandular component of the prostate
B. the IPSS questionnaire points
C. the PVR
D. the transitional zone volume
Answer : A

36. The lowest re-treatment rate of BPH is for:
A. TUIP
B. TURP
C. HoLEP
D. HoLRP
Answer : A

37. a. operation cost
A. smaller incisions with a shorter hospital stay
B. lower risk for blood transfusion
C. none of the above
D. . What is the first-line management of uncomplicated LUTS due to large prostate?
Answer : B

38. What is false concerning needle ablation therapy of the prostate (TUNA)?
A. prostate sizes of up to 70 ml can be treated
B. not recommended in patients with metallic artificial hip
C. retreatment rates are lower than for TURP
D. can be performed in an office-based setting
Answer : C

39. Which statement best describes the natural history of BPH:
A. worsening of LUTS and BPH over time
B. patients die of other reasons before serious complications occur
C. physically, the space of prostatic fossa limits the gland enlargement
D. ultimately, the gland will degenerate and undergo apoptosis
Answer : B