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SSC GD - Urology Basic Science 1000+ MCQ [Solved] PDF Download

Thursday 9th of March 2023

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1. All of the following conditions are related to obesity syndrome, EXCEPT:
A. super fertility
B. increase aromatization reaction
C. increase resistance to circulating insulin
D. sleep apnea
Answer : A
2. Where do Cowper`s gland ducts drain into?
A. ejaculatory ducts
B. prostatic urethra
C. membranous urethra
D. bulbous urethra
Answer : D
3. What antibiotic could result in red man syndrome?
A. vancomycin
B. clindamycin
C. streptomycin
D. tobramycin
Answer : A
4. How many renal papillae are there in a typical kidney?
A. 4 to 6
B. 7 to 9
C. 10 to 12
D. 13 to 14
Answer : B
5. Which microbe causes red diaper syndrome?
A. Serratia marcescens
B. Streptococcus pyogenes
C. Clostridium difficile
D. Staphylococcus saprophyticus
Answer : A
6. What does make UTI more common in mid-aged females than in males?
A. short female urethra
B. pregnancy
C. vaginal colonization with enterobacteria
D. all the above
Answer : D
7. All of the following develop from the mesonephric ducts, EXCEPT:
A. vas deferens
B. seminal vesicles
C. appendix epididymis
D. appendix testis
Answer : D
8. Which of the following is NOT a component of the normal semen?
A. zinc
B. fructose
C. prostate-specific antigen
D. alkaline phosphatase
Answer : D
9. What is the half-life of ?-HCG?
A. 5 7 days
B. 24 36 hours
C. 2 3 days
D. 12 24 hours
Answer : B
10. Which class of the following agents does NOT impair spermatogenesis?
A. alkylating agents
B. phenothiazines
C. antiandrogens
D. prostaglandins
Answer : B
11. What is the most significant innervation of the vas deferens?
A. sympathetic nervous system
B. parasympathetic nervous system
C. somatic nervous system
D. none of the above
Answer : A
12. What is the most significant complication of cyclosporine?
A. hepatic toxicity
B. renal toxicity
C. neural toxicity
D. cardiac toxicity
Answer : B
13. Which antibiotic is the best to treat soft tissue infection with methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) in hospitalized patients?
A. vancomycin
B. cefotaxime
C. penicillin G
D. tobramycin
Answer : A
14. Which part of the prostate is traversed by the ejaculatory duct:
A. central zone
B. peripheral zone
C. transitional zone
D. fibromuscular stroma
Answer : A
15. What are the posterior relations of the kidneys?
A. quadratus lumborum and diaphragm
B. psoas and diaphragm
C. psoas and latissimus dorsi
D. transversus abdominus and paraspinous
Answer : A
16. Which statement is false concerning capacitation of spermatozoa?
A. occurs after acrosome reaction
B. entails removal of a glycoprotein layer
C. it is a biochemical event of sperm maturation
D. changes occur in the female genital tract
Answer : A
17. Which of the following is NOT related to von Hippel-Lindau disease?
A. retinal hemangioblastoma
B. ureteral atresia
C. pheochromocytomas
D. multiple cysts in the pancreas and kidneys
Answer : B
18. To which group of lymph nodes do tumors at the anterior superior area of the bladder, first, drain?
A. hypogastric
B. internal iliac
C. external iliac
D. lateral sacral
Answer : C
19. At which week of gestation do the primordial germ cells migrate to form the genital ridges?
A. third
B. fourth
C. fifth
D. seventh
Answer : C
20. What fascial layer(s) cover(s) the prostate?
A. Denonvilliers fascia
B. prostatic fascia
C. levator fascia
D. all of the above
Answer : D
21. Which of the prostate medications could result in significant hypotension?
A. finasteride
B. prazosin
C. silodosin
D. vardenafil
Answer : B
22. Which statement is false concerning the dipstick method for detecting hematuria?
A. depends on the ability of hemoglobin to oxidize a chromogen indicator
B. negative results need to be confirmed by microscopic examination
C. has a sensitivity of 95% and a specificity of 75%
D. the presence of many epithelial cells suggests skin or vaginal contamination
Answer : B
23. How long post bilateral orchiectomy, will patients be functionally castrated?
A. immediately
B. after 2 hrs.
C. after 12 hrs.
D. after 24 hrs.
Answer : B
24. Which of the following mediates calcium reabsorption in the distal renal tubules?
A. aldosterone
B. hypocalcemia
C. parathyroid hormone
D. vitamin D
Answer : C
25. Which zone of the prostate originates from the Wolffian duct tissue:
A. central zone
B. peripheral zone
C. transitional zone
D. periurethral glands
Answer : A
26. Which of the following is false regarding Addison`s disease?
A. autoimmune disease in 70% of the cases
B. diagnosed by the rapid ACTH stimulation test
C. characterized by low serum sodium and high potassium
D. may coexist with hyperthyroidism and diabetes mellitus
Answer : D
27. What causes pink diaper syndrome is (are):
A. Staphylococcus epidermidis in the urine
B. dried urate crystals on the diaper
C. Adenovirus 11 in the urine
D. Candidiasis in the urine
Answer : B
28. Which agent is most likely to cause hemorrhagic cystitis?
A. cisplatin
B. ifosfamide
C. phosphomycin
D. amphotericin B
Answer : B
29. Which statement concerning urine pH is false?
A. influenced by food and medications
B. renal stones form at the extremes of pH range
C. reliable only when measured by 24 hr. urine collection
D. ranges from 4 7
Answer : C
30. In utero, which hormone stimulates the development of the prostate gland?
A. estradiol
B. DHT
C. FSH
D. testosterone
Answer : B
31. Which statement regarding post-obstructive diuresis (POD) is false?
A. urine production exceeding 200 ml/hr for 2 consecutive hours or producing greater than 3 L of urine in 24 hours is diagnostic of POD
B. pathologic POD can be exacerbated by excessive fluid replacement
C. the replacement fluid choice is ringer lactate
D. fluid resuscitation depends on the degree of dehydration
Answer : C
32. What is false about indinavir sulfate stones?
A. intratubular crystal formation might occur
B. CT cannot reliably confirm the presence of indinavir calculi
C. stone formation is demonstrated in 80% of patients taking the medication
D. is a protease inhibitor with poor solubility and significant urinary excretion
Answer : C
33. In utero, which hormone stimulates the development of Wolffian ducts?
A. estradiol
B. DHT
C. FSH
D. testosterone
Answer : D
34. What nerve provides the major neural supply to the striated urinary sphincter and levator ani muscle?
A. somatic innervations
B. sympathetic fibers from T11 - L2
C. the pudendal nerve
D. the obturator nerve
Answer : C
35. During fluoroscopy, what is the main source of radiation hazards that urologists could be exposed to?
A. scattered radiation from the unleaded wall
B. scattered radiation from the patient
C. scattered radiation from the floor and ceiling
D. radiation from the primary beam
Answer : B
36. What do the specialized cells, at the juxtaglomerular apparatus, produce?
A. erythropoietin
B. renin
C. angiotensin I
D. angiotensinogen
Answer : B
37. In which condition can NOT creatinine level be 1200 mg/dL?
A. an aspirate of pelvic urinoma
B. in untreated end-stage renal failure disease
C. a sample from a wound drain after pyeloplasty
D. a sample from suprapubic catheter
Answer : B
38. Where is Santorini plexus located?
A. at either side of the prostate
B. in the pubo-prostatic space
C. anterior to the seminal vesicles
D. posterior to the vaso-epididymal junction
Answer : B
39. From where does the main parasympathetic efferent innervation to the pelvic plexus arise?
A. S1
B. S2-S4
C. T11-L2
D. L3-S1
Answer : B
40. Which of the following explains infertility in liver cirrhosis male patients?
A. decrease plasma estradiol levels
B. increase plasma testosterone-estradiol-binding globulin levels
C. suppression of suprarenal androgens
D. exaggerated pituitary response to feedback hormones
Answer : B
41. What is the most likely cause of large scrotal hematoma in neonates?
A. clotting factor VIII deficiency
B. clotting factor IX deficiency
C. breech delivery
D. scrotal cavernous haemangioma
Answer : C
42. How can hyperuricosuria cause calcium oxalate calculi?
A. by increasing oxalate absorption
B. by heterogeneous nucleation
C. by inducing hyperoxaluria
D. by reducing urate crystals saturation
Answer : B
43. In males, which of the following structure(s) can NOT be palpated during digital rectal examination?
A. pelvic floor muscles
B. seminal vesicles
C. anterior surface of the sacrum
D. median lobe of the prostate
Answer : D
44. What is false concerning renal vasculature?
A. there are 4 sugical segments of the kidney, based on the segmental artery distribution
B. along the kidney convexity, there is an avascular plane
C. there are no collaterals between segmental arteries
D. in < 10%, the posterior branch is the first to branch off the renal artery
Answer : D
45. Which of the following process(es) is (are) reversible?
A. 5?-reductase enzyme reduces testosterone to DHT
B. aromatase enzyme reduces testosterone to estrogen
C. PSA molecule binds to ?1-antichymotrypsin and ?2-macroglobulin
D. none of the above
Answer : D
46. Which of the following is NOT a sex accessory tissue?
A. the prostate gland
B. seminal vesicles
C. epididymi
D. bulbourethral glands
Answer : C
47. In which organelle in Leydig cell does testosterone synthesis take place?
A. ribosome
B. mitochondria
C. Golgi apparatus
D. endoplasmic reticulum
Answer : D
48. Which group(s) of lymph nodes drain(s) the glans penis?
A. internal and external iliac
B. superficial inguinal
C. deep inguinal
D. superficial and deep inguinal
Answer : A
49. Serum testosterone should be measured:
A. at mid-day
B. at the hour of sleep
C. in the morning
D. late afternoon
Answer : C
50. What is the most frequent anomaly associated with multicystic renal dysplasia?
A. ureteral atresia
B. vesicoureteral reflux
C. ureteropelvic junction obstruction
D. ureteral duplication
Answer : A
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