UPSC CSE - Urology Basic Science 1000+ MCQ [Solved] PDF Download

1. Which of the following diabetes mellitus treatments causes erectile dysfunction?
A. long-acting insulin
B. metformin
C. sulfonylurea
D. none of the above
Answer : D

2. What is true regarding hematospermia?
A. should be investigated thoroughly like hematuria
B. is rarely associated with significant urologic pathology
C. carries a risk of infertility
D. mandates testicular biopsy
Answer : B

3. Which drug does NOT result in urinary retention?
A. terazosin, antihypertensive
B. benzodiazepines, psychotropic medicine
C. levodopa, anti-Parkinsonism medicine
D. brimonidine, glaucoma eye drops
Answer : A

4. How does estrogen prevent lower UTI in postmenopausal women?
A. increasing vaginal secretions
B. decreasing vaginal pH
C. increasing normal vaginal flora
D. decreasing bacterial adherence
Answer : B

5. What do the specialized cells, at the juxtaglomerular apparatus, produce?
A. erythropoietin
B. renin
C. angiotensin I
D. angiotensinogen
Answer : B

6. Which statement is false concerning the gubernaculua?
A. degenerate after birth
B. called the caudal genital ligaments
C. help guide the testes down through the inguinal canals
D. represent undifferentiated mesenchyme
Answer : A

7. What is the most likely diagnosis of an erectile dysfunction patient with low plasma testosterone and high prolactin levels?
A. pituitary adenoma
B. adrenal adenoma
C. Kallmann syndrome
D. Klinefelter syndrome
Answer : A

8. Which of the following does NOT increase in prostate cancer?
A. human kallikrein 2
B. pro-PSA
C. free PSA
D. complexed PSA
Answer : C

9. What is false concerning PSA molecule?
A. the free form of PSA exists in small proportions in the body, and found mainly in BPH and in the ejaculate
B. ?1- anti chymotrypsin binds to 3 epitopes of the PSA molecule to form a complexed PSA
C. ?2- macroglobulin binds to 5 epitopes of the PSA molecule to form a complexed PSA
D. the purified PSA molecule has a molecular weight of 90 kDa
Answer : D

10. Regarding multicystic kidneys, at what age does the compensatory renal growth end?
A. at birth
B. 2 years
C. at puberty
D. none of the above
Answer : B

11. What is the function of PSA in semen?
A. increases semen volume
B. has antimicrobial activity
C. liquefies the seminal coagulum
D. decreases semen pH
Answer : C

12. Which group(s) of lymph nodes drain(s) the glans penis?
A. internal and external iliac
B. superficial inguinal
C. deep inguinal
D. superficial and deep inguinal
Answer : A

13. Which disease is described best by the following manifestations: grand mal epilepsy, mental retardation, hypertension, angiomyolipoma, adenoma sebaceum, bilateral enlarged kidneys, and normal renal function?
A. autosomal dominant polycystic kidney disease
B. von Hippel-Lindau disease
C. tuberous sclerosis
D. Sturge-Webber syndrome
Answer : C

14. What is the nature of the prostate-specific antigen?
A. protease
B. lyase
C. carboxylase
D. hydrolase
Answer : A

15. By which of the following structures, do the fused lower poles of hoarseshoe kidneys get trapped during embryologic ascent?
A. inferior mesenteric artery
B. superior mesenteric artery
C. celiac artery
D. common iliac artery
Answer : A

16. Which type of urinary casts are solidified TammHorsfall mucoproteins secreted from the tubular epithelial cells of individual nephrons?
A. granular
B. hyaline
C. waxy
D. pigment
Answer : B

17. What antibiotic could result in red man syndrome?
A. vancomycin
B. clindamycin
C. streptomycin
D. tobramycin
Answer : A

18. What helps in treating Candida albicans cystitis is:
A. sodium bicarbonate
B. phyto soya
C. ascorbic acid
D. sol palmetto
Answer : A

19. In which body tissue(s) are creatine and phosphocreatine converted to creatinine?
A. bone marrow
B. skeletal muscles
C. brown fat
D. liver
Answer : B

20. Which of the following does NOT affect serum creatinine?
A. gender
B. age
C. obstructing stone at left lower ureter
D. rhabdomyolysis
Answer : C

21. Which of the prostate medications could result in retrograde ejaculation?
A. tamsulosin
B. doxazosin
C. dutasteride
D. alfuzosin
Answer : A

22. Which of the following is NOT a sex accessory tissue?
A. the prostate gand
B. seminal vesicles
C. epididymi
D. bulbourethral glands
Answer : C

23. In utero, which hormone stimulates the development of the prostate gland?
A. estradiol
B. DHT
C. FSH
D. testosterone
Answer : B

24. What fascial layer(s) cover(s) the prostate?
A. Denonvilliers fascia
B. prostatic fascia
C. levator fascia
D. all of the above
Answer : D

25. Where is the centre of reflex erection located at?
A. the brain cortex
B. the sacral cord
C. the lumbar cord
D. the hypothalamus
Answer : B

26. Which artery is NOT a branch of the anterior division of internal iliac artery?
A. superior vesical artery
B. inferior vesical artery
C. superior gluteal artery
D. inferior gluteal artery
Answer : C

27. Where is Santorini plexus located?
A. at either side of the prostate
B. in the pubo-prostatic space
C. anterior to the seminal vesicles
D. posterior to the vaso-epididymal junction
Answer : B

28. Which of the following conditions could happen in chronic pancreatitis and malabsorption syndrome with steatorrhea?
A. hyperoxaluria
B. hypercalciuria
C. hyperuricosuria
D. hyperphosphateuria
Answer : A

29. What causes pink diaper syndrome is (are):
A. Staphylococcus epidermidis in the urine
B. dried urate crystals on the diaper
C. Adenovirus 11 in the urine
D. Candidiasis in the urine
Answer : B

30. What does apoptosis mean?
A. programmed cell death
B. new vascular formation
C. uninhibited neural stimulation
D. premature muscular contraction
Answer : A

31. What is false concerning coagulase splitting bacteria (Griess) test?
A. it is a reduction reaction that converts nitrate to nitrite
B. nitrazine reagent papers are used to elicit the reaction
C. it is false negative in diluted urine, on taking vitamin C, and in gram +ve bacteria
D. the reaction takes 4 minutes to complete
Answer : D

32. Which statement is true about the female urethra?
A. harder to catheterize when compared to the male urethra
B. 4 inch long
C. opens into the vestibule below the clitoris
D. gets wider at the post-menopausal age
Answer : C

33. What is the most common cause of hematuria in men over 60 yrs.?
A. kidney stones
B. glomerulonephritis
C. BPH
D. bladder cancer
Answer : C

34. Which area in the nervous system is tested by bulbocavernosus reflex?
A. brain stem
B. C2 C4
C. S2 - S4
D. L2 - L4
Answer : C

35. Which of the prostate medications could result in significant hypotension?
A. finasteride
B. prazosin
C. silodosin
D. vardenafil
Answer : B

36. Which statement is false concerning the epididymis?
A. each epididymis can be palpable at the postero-lateral surface of the testis
B. has 3 parts; head, body, and tail
C. new batches of sperms stay in the epididymis around 2 days for maturation
D. shares the same blood supply of the testis
Answer : C

37. What is false about purple urine bag syndrome?
A. occurs due to the interaction between the chemical components of the urine and polyvinyl chloride material in the urine bag
B. it is commonly symptomless
C. more common in female nursing home residents
D. commonly implicated bacteria are K. pneumoniae, P. mirabilis, E. coli
Answer : A

38. All of the following develop from the mesonephric ducts, EXCEPT:
A. vas deferens
B. seminal vesicles
C. appendix epididymis
D. appendix testis
Answer : D

39. Which statement is false concerning capacitation of spermatozoa?
A. occurs after acrosome reaction
B. entails removal of a glycoprotein layer
C. it is a biochemical event of sperm maturation
D. changes occur in the female genital tract
Answer : A

40. What is the prime effect of antidiuretic hormone on kidneys?
A. increase collecting duct permeability
B. increase medullary blood flow
C. decrease cortical blood flow
D. decrease potassium secretion
Answer : A

41. Which zone of the prostate originates from the Wolffian duct tissue:
A. central zone
B. peripheral zone
C. transitional zone
D. periurethral glands
Answer : A

42. Which statement is false concerning the dipstick method for detecting hematuria?
A. depends on the ability of hemoglobin to oxidize a chromogen indicator
B. negative results need to be confirmed by microscopic examination
C. has a sensitivity of 95% and a specificity of 75%
D. the presence of many epithelial cells suggests skin or vaginal contamination
Answer : B

43. Which statement explains the first event in the micturition reflex?
A. opening of internal bladder sphincter
B. fall in urethral pressure
. rise in intravesical pressure
D. cessation of sphincter EMG activity
Answer : D

44. Which microbe causes red diaper syndrome?
A. Serratia marcescens
B. Streptococcus pyogenes
C. Clostridium difficile
D. Staphylococcus saprophyticus
Answer : A

45. What causes Cushing`s disease is:
A. bilateral adrenal hyperplasia
B. pituitary over secretion of ACTH
C. exogenous administration of glucocorticoids
D. immune-mediated disease
Answer : B

46. The mature genitourinary system develops from all of the following embryonic sources, EXCEPT:
A. intermediate mesoderm
B. mesothelium of celomic cavity
C. endoderm of the urogenital sinus
D. somatic ectoderm
Answer : D

47. Which of the following does NOT increase PSA value?
A. trauma to the prostate
B. digital rectal examination
C. urinary retention
D. prostatitis
Answer : B

48. Which of the renal artery occlusive conditions, commonly, do NOT affect renal function?
A. intimal fibroplasia
B. medial fibroplasia
C. medial hyperplasia
D. serosal hyperplasia
Answer : B

49. What is the best initial therapy for hyponatremic dehydration?
A. administration of hypertonic saline
B. administration of crystalloid
C. administration of normal saline
D. administration of ringer lactate
Answer : C

50. What are the abnormalities that might accompany complete ureteral duplications?
A. reflux to the upper pole ureter, obstruction to the lower pole ureter
B. reflux to the lower pole ureter, obstruction to the upper pole ureter
C. left ureteropelvic junction obstruction, right ureterocele
D. right ureteropelvic junction obstruction, left ureterocele
Answer : B