Urology Basic Science MCQ Solved Paper for GRE
Thursday 9th of March 2023
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1. Which of the following conditions could result in white urine?
A. chyluria
B. bacteriuria
C. phosphaturia
D. all of the above
Answer : D
A. chyluria
B. bacteriuria
C. phosphaturia
D. all of the above
Answer : D
2. Which of the following does NOT increase in prostate cancer?
A. human kallikrein 2
B. pro-PSA
C. free PSA
D. complexed PSA
Answer : C
A. human kallikrein 2
B. pro-PSA
C. free PSA
D. complexed PSA
Answer : C
3. What is false concerning the collecting system structures of a typical kidney?
A. the renal pelvis could be intra or extra renal
B. the renal pelvis divides into 2 or 3 major calyces
C. major calyces divide into 2 or 3 minor calyces
D. unlike lateral calyces, polar calyces are often paired
Answer : D
A. the renal pelvis could be intra or extra renal
B. the renal pelvis divides into 2 or 3 major calyces
C. major calyces divide into 2 or 3 minor calyces
D. unlike lateral calyces, polar calyces are often paired
Answer : D
4. What fascial layer(s) cover(s) the prostate?
A. Denonvilliers fascia
B. prostatic fascia
C. levator fascia
D. all of the above
Answer : D
A. Denonvilliers fascia
B. prostatic fascia
C. levator fascia
D. all of the above
Answer : D
5. Which of the following is NOT a part of the urogenital diaphragm structures?
A. perineal membrane
B. deep transverse perineal muscle
C. urethral sphincter
D. Camper`s fascia
Answer : D
A. perineal membrane
B. deep transverse perineal muscle
C. urethral sphincter
D. Camper`s fascia
Answer : D
6. Which of the following is false regarding zona glomeruloza?
A. the most superficial layer of the adrenal cortex
B. responses to increased potassium levels, renin or decreased renal blood flow
C. it causes pheochromocytoma
D. secretes aldosterone
Answer : C
A. the most superficial layer of the adrenal cortex
B. responses to increased potassium levels, renin or decreased renal blood flow
C. it causes pheochromocytoma
D. secretes aldosterone
Answer : C
7. Which anomaly might accompany horseshoe kidneys?
A. ureteropelvic junction obstruction
B. ureterocele
C. ureteral reflux
D. ureteral atresia
Answer : A
A. ureteropelvic junction obstruction
B. ureterocele
C. ureteral reflux
D. ureteral atresia
Answer : A
8. Which statement is false concerning capacitation of spermatozoa?
A. occurs after acrosome reaction
B. entails removal of a glycoprotein layer
C. it is a biochemical event of sperm maturation
D. changes occur in the female genital tract
Answer : A
A. occurs after acrosome reaction
B. entails removal of a glycoprotein layer
C. it is a biochemical event of sperm maturation
D. changes occur in the female genital tract
Answer : A
9. All of the following conditions are related to obesity syndrome, EXCEPT:
A. super fertility
B. increase aromatization reaction
C. increase resistance to circulating insulin
D. sleep apnea
Answer : A
A. super fertility
B. increase aromatization reaction
C. increase resistance to circulating insulin
D. sleep apnea
Answer : A
10. Which organ contributes most to the seminal fluid volume?
A. testes
B. prostate
C. seminal vesicles
D. bulbourethral glands
Answer : C
A. testes
B. prostate
C. seminal vesicles
D. bulbourethral glands
Answer : C
11. What increases blood volume and pressure in corpora cavernosa during erection is:
A. increase in sympathetic discharge
B. contraction of ischiocavernosa and bulbocavernosa muscles
C. increase arterial flow and closure of emissary veins
D. shunting of blood from the dorsal to the central cavernosal artery
Answer : C
A. increase in sympathetic discharge
B. contraction of ischiocavernosa and bulbocavernosa muscles
C. increase arterial flow and closure of emissary veins
D. shunting of blood from the dorsal to the central cavernosal artery
Answer : C
12. What is false about indinavir sulfate stones?
A. intratubular crystal formation might occur
B. CT cannot reliably confirm the presence of indinavir calculi
C. stone formation is demonstrated in 80% of patients taking the medication
D. is a protease inhibitor with poor solubility and significant urinary excretion
Answer : C
A. intratubular crystal formation might occur
B. CT cannot reliably confirm the presence of indinavir calculi
C. stone formation is demonstrated in 80% of patients taking the medication
D. is a protease inhibitor with poor solubility and significant urinary excretion
Answer : C
13. At which condition is alpha-fetoprotein most frequently elevated?
A. infiltrating ductal carcinoma of the breast
B. seminoma
C. hepatocellular carcinoma
D. malignant melanoma
Answer : C
A. infiltrating ductal carcinoma of the breast
B. seminoma
C. hepatocellular carcinoma
D. malignant melanoma
Answer : C
14. Which statement concerning urine pH is false?
A. influenced by food and medications
B. renal stones form at the extremes of pH range
C. reliable only when measured by 24 hr. urine collection
D. ranges from 4 7
Answer : C
A. influenced by food and medications
B. renal stones form at the extremes of pH range
C. reliable only when measured by 24 hr. urine collection
D. ranges from 4 7
Answer : C
15. What antibiotic could result in red man syndrome?
A. vancomycin
B. clindamycin
C. streptomycin
D. tobramycin
Answer : A
A. vancomycin
B. clindamycin
C. streptomycin
D. tobramycin
Answer : A
16. What is false concerning coagulase splitting bacteria (Griess) test?
A. it is a reduction reaction that converts nitrate to nitrite
B. nitrazine reagent papers are used to elicit the reaction
C. it is false negative in diluted urine, on taking vitamin C, and in gram +ve bacteria
D. the reaction takes 4 minutes to complete
Answer : D
A. it is a reduction reaction that converts nitrate to nitrite
B. nitrazine reagent papers are used to elicit the reaction
C. it is false negative in diluted urine, on taking vitamin C, and in gram +ve bacteria
D. the reaction takes 4 minutes to complete
Answer : D
17. Which of the following does NOT affect serum creatinine?
A. gender
B. age
C. obstructing stone at left lower ureter
D. rhabdomyolysis
Answer : C
A. gender
B. age
C. obstructing stone at left lower ureter
D. rhabdomyolysis
Answer : C
18. Which of the prostate medications could result in retrograde ejaculation?
A. tamsulosin
B. doxazosin
C. dutasteride
D. alfuzosin
Answer : A
A. tamsulosin
B. doxazosin
C. dutasteride
D. alfuzosin
Answer : A
19. Which statement is false concerning microhematuria?
A. malignancy is identified in patients presenting with microhematuria more than in patients presenting with gross hematuria
B. microscopic hematuria is defined as > 3 red blood cells per high powered field (RBC/hpf) on a single specimen
C. warrants full hematuria workup
D. history of cigarette smoking is of significance
Answer : A
A. malignancy is identified in patients presenting with microhematuria more than in patients presenting with gross hematuria
B. microscopic hematuria is defined as > 3 red blood cells per high powered field (RBC/hpf) on a single specimen
C. warrants full hematuria workup
D. history of cigarette smoking is of significance
Answer : A
20. Where is the centre of reflex erection located at?
A. the brain cortex
B. the sacral cord
C. the lumbar cord
D. the hypothalamus
Answer : B
A. the brain cortex
B. the sacral cord
C. the lumbar cord
D. the hypothalamus
Answer : B
21. What is the earliest clinical sign of puberty in boys?
A. hoarseness of voice
B. enlargement of testes
C. appearance of axillary hair
D. change in body odor
Answer : B
A. hoarseness of voice
B. enlargement of testes
C. appearance of axillary hair
D. change in body odor
Answer : B
22. The epithelial component of the prostate consists of all of the following, EXCEPT:
A. basal cells
B. intermediate cells
C. tubulo-columnar cells
D. neuroendocrine cells
Answer : C
A. basal cells
B. intermediate cells
C. tubulo-columnar cells
D. neuroendocrine cells
Answer : C
23. All of the following develop from the mesonephric ducts, EXCEPT:
A. vas deferens
B. seminal vesicles
C. appendix epididymis
D. appendix testis
Answer : D
A. vas deferens
B. seminal vesicles
C. appendix epididymis
D. appendix testis
Answer : D
24. What type of renal tubular acidosis (RTA) does demonstrate aldosterone resistance?
A. type 1
B. type 2
C. type 3
D. type 4
Answer : D
A. type 1
B. type 2
C. type 3
D. type 4
Answer : D
25. Where do Cowper`s gland ducts drain into?
A. ejaculatory ducts
B. prostatic urethra
C. membranous urethra
D. bulbous urethra
Answer : D
A. ejaculatory ducts
B. prostatic urethra
C. membranous urethra
D. bulbous urethra
Answer : D
26. Which type of urinary casts are solidified TammHorsfall mucoproteins secreted from the tubular epithelial cells of individual nephrons?
A. granular
B. hyaline
C. waxy
D. pigment
Answer : B
A. granular
B. hyaline
C. waxy
D. pigment
Answer : B
27. In males, which of the following structure(s) can NOT be palpated during digital rectal examination?
A. pelvic floor muscles
B. seminal vesicles
C. anterior surface of the sacrum
D. median lobe of the prostate
Answer : D
A. pelvic floor muscles
B. seminal vesicles
C. anterior surface of the sacrum
D. median lobe of the prostate
Answer : D
28. During fluoroscopy, what is the main source of radiation hazards that urologists could be exposed to?
A. scattered radiation from the unleaded wall
B. scattered radiation from the patient
C. scattered radiation from the floor and ceiling
D. radiation from the primary beam
Answer : B
A. scattered radiation from the unleaded wall
B. scattered radiation from the patient
C. scattered radiation from the floor and ceiling
D. radiation from the primary beam
Answer : B
29. What is the most significant innervation of the vas deferens?
A. sympathetic nervous system
B. parasympathetic nervous system
C. somatic nervous system
D. none of the above
Answer : A
A. sympathetic nervous system
B. parasympathetic nervous system
C. somatic nervous system
D. none of the above
Answer : A
30. Which artery(ies) supply(ies) the prostate?
A. middle rectal
B. inferior vesical
C. a & b
D. none of the above
Answer : C
A. middle rectal
B. inferior vesical
C. a & b
D. none of the above
Answer : C
31. Which of the following diabetes mellitus treatments causes erectile dysfunction?
A. long-acting insulin
B. metformin
C. sulfonylurea
D. none of the above
Answer : D
A. long-acting insulin
B. metformin
C. sulfonylurea
D. none of the above
Answer : D
32. What are the abnormalities that might accompany complete ureteral duplications?
A. reflux to the upper pole ureter, obstruction to the lower pole ureter
B. reflux to the lower pole ureter, obstruction to the upper pole ureter
C. left ureteropelvic junction obstruction, right ureterocele
D. right ureteropelvic junction obstruction, left ureterocele
Answer : B
A. reflux to the upper pole ureter, obstruction to the lower pole ureter
B. reflux to the lower pole ureter, obstruction to the upper pole ureter
C. left ureteropelvic junction obstruction, right ureterocele
D. right ureteropelvic junction obstruction, left ureterocele
Answer : B
33. What is the half-life of ?-HCG?
A. 5 7 days
B. 24 36 hours
C. 2 3 days
D. 12 24 hours
Answer : B
A. 5 7 days
B. 24 36 hours
C. 2 3 days
D. 12 24 hours
Answer : B
34. What degrades semenogelin and determines the consistency of the seminal coagulum is:
A. spermine
B. acid phosphatase
C. PSA
D. semenoglobulin
Answer : C
A. spermine
B. acid phosphatase
C. PSA
D. semenoglobulin
Answer : C
35. In which organelle in Leydig cell does testosterone synthesis take place?
A. ribosome
B. mitochondria
C. Golgi apparatus
D. endoplasmic reticulum
Answer : D
A. ribosome
B. mitochondria
C. Golgi apparatus
D. endoplasmic reticulum
Answer : D
36. What does apoptosis mean?
A. programmed cell death
B. new vascular formation
C. uninhibited neural stimulation
D. premature muscular contraction
Answer : A
A. programmed cell death
B. new vascular formation
C. uninhibited neural stimulation
D. premature muscular contraction
Answer : A
37. When should a 70 yrs. man with 40 ml prostate volume, and total PSA of 2.0 ng/ml, go for a prostate biopsy?
A. if PSA reading had exceeded 2.7 ng/ml over 12 months
B. if free PSA reading was less than 0.4 ng/ml
C. if total PSA reading was greater than 8 ng/ml
D. any of the above
Answer : D
A. if PSA reading had exceeded 2.7 ng/ml over 12 months
B. if free PSA reading was less than 0.4 ng/ml
C. if total PSA reading was greater than 8 ng/ml
D. any of the above
Answer : D
38. Which part of the male urethra is the narrowest?
A. the membranous
B. the bladder neck
C. the bulbous
D. the external urethral meatus
Answer : D
A. the membranous
B. the bladder neck
C. the bulbous
D. the external urethral meatus
Answer : D
39. At which week of gestation do the primordial germ cells migrate to form the genital ridges?
A. third
B. fourth
C. fifth
D. seventh
Answer : C
A. third
B. fourth
C. fifth
D. seventh
Answer : C
40. Renal blood flow is autoregulated by:
A. sympathetic nervous system
B. parasympathetic nervous system
C. urinary output
D. afferent arteriolar resistance
Answer : D
A. sympathetic nervous system
B. parasympathetic nervous system
C. urinary output
D. afferent arteriolar resistance
Answer : D
41. How long post bilateral orchiectomy, will patients be functionally castrated?
A. immediately
B. after 2 hrs.
C. after 12 hrs.
D. after 24 hrs.
Answer : B
A. immediately
B. after 2 hrs.
C. after 12 hrs.
D. after 24 hrs.
Answer : B
42. What is false concerning fosfomycin antibiotic?
A. has a limited cross-resistance with most common antibacterial agents
B. causes injection site reactions
C. is active against most uropathogens
D. is effective as a single-dose agent
Answer : B
A. has a limited cross-resistance with most common antibacterial agents
B. causes injection site reactions
C. is active against most uropathogens
D. is effective as a single-dose agent
Answer : B
43. Which of the following conditions could happen in chronic pancreatitis and malabsorption syndrome with steatorrhea?
A. hyperoxaluria
B. hypercalciuriaC. hyperuricosuria
D. hyperphosphateuria
Answer : A
A. hyperoxaluria
B. hypercalciuria
D. hyperphosphateuria
Answer : A
44. Which of the following is NOT a sex accessory tissue?
A. the prostate gland
B. seminal vesicles
C. epididymi
D. bulbourethral glands
Answer : C
A. the prostate gland
B. seminal vesicles
C. epididymi
D. bulbourethral glands
Answer : C
45. Which of the following mediates calcium reabsorption in the distal renal tubules?
A. aldosterone
B. hypocalcemia
C. parathyroid hormone
D. vitamin D
Answer : C
A. aldosterone
B. hypocalcemia
C. parathyroid hormone
D. vitamin D
Answer : C
46. How can hyperuricosuria cause calcium oxalate calculi?
A. by increasing oxalate absorption
B. by heterogeneous nucleation
C. by inducing hyperoxaluria
D. by reducing urate crystals saturation
Answer : B
A. by increasing oxalate absorption
B. by heterogeneous nucleation
C. by inducing hyperoxaluria
D. by reducing urate crystals saturation
Answer : B
47. What is the appropriate intravenous maintenance fluid for a 16 kg girl?
A. 43 ml/hr of normal saline
B. 78 ml/hr of ¼ normal saline
C. 69 ml/hr of ½ normal saline
D. 54 ml/hr of ¼ normal saline
Answer : D
A. 43 ml/hr of normal saline
B. 78 ml/hr of ¼ normal saline
C. 69 ml/hr of ½ normal saline
D. 54 ml/hr of ¼ normal saline
Answer : D
48. What is false concerning renal vasculature?
A. there are 4 surgical segments of the kidney, based on the segmental artery distribution
B. along the kidney convexity, there is an avascular plane
C. there are no collaterals between segmental arteries
D. in < 10%, the posterior branch is the first to branch off the renal artery
Answer : D
A. there are 4 surgical segments of the kidney, based on the segmental artery distribution
B. along the kidney convexity, there is an avascular plane
C. there are no collaterals between segmental arteries
D. in < 10%, the posterior branch is the first to branch off the renal artery
Answer : D
49. Which of the prostate medications could result in significant hypotension?
A. finasteride
B. prazosin
C. silodosin
D. vardenafil
Answer : B
A. finasteride
B. prazosin
C. silodosin
D. vardenafil
Answer : B
50. What causes Cushing`s disease is:
A. bilateral adrenal hyperplasia
B. pituitary over secretion of ACTH
C. exogenous administration of glucocorticoids
D. immune-mediated disease
Answer : B
A. bilateral adrenal hyperplasia
B. pituitary over secretion of ACTH
C. exogenous administration of glucocorticoids
D. immune-mediated disease
Answer : B
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