Urology Basic Science MCQ Solved Paper for GMAT

1. What is false concerning PSA molecule?
A. the free form of PSA exists in small proportions in the body, and found mainly in BPH and in the ejaculate
B. ?1- anti chymotrypsin binds to 3 epitopes of the PSA molecule to form a complexed PSA
C. ?2- macroglobulin binds to 5 epitopes of the PSA molecule to form a complexed PSA
D. the purified PSA molecule has a molecular weight of 90 kDa
Answer : D

2. When should a 70 yrs. man with 40 ml prostate volume, and total PSA of 2.0 ng/ml, go for a prostate biopsy?
A. if PSA reading had exceeded 2.7 ng/ml over 12 months
B. if free PSA reading was less than 0.4 ng/ml
C. if total PSA reading was greater than 8 ng/ml
D. any of the above
Answer : D

3. At which type of renal tubular acidosis (RTA), typically, potassium levels increase?
A. type 1
B. type 2
C. type 3
D. type 4
Answer : D

4. Which group(s) of lymph nodes drain(s) the glans penis?
A. internal and external iliac
B. superficial inguinal
C. deep inguinal
D. superficial and deep inguinal
Answer : A

5. Which agent is most likely to cause hemorrhagic cystitis?
A. cisplatin
B. ifosfamide
C. phosphomycin
D. amphotericin B
Answer : B

6. What is the most common cause of hematuria in men over 60 yrs.?
A. kidney stones
B. glomerulonephritis
C. BPH
D. bladder cancer
Answer : C

7. Which nephron segment contains the most diluted urine in central diabetes insipidus patient?
A. proximal convoluted tubules
B. distal convoluted tubules
C. collecting duct
D. loop of Henle
Answer : C

8. Which statement regarding post-obstructive diuresis (POD) is false?
A. urine production exceeding 200 ml/hr for 2 consecutive hours or producing greater than 3 L of urine in 24 hours is diagnostic of POD
B. pathologic POD can be exacerbated by excessive fluid replacement
C. the replacement fluid choice is ringer lactate
D. fluid resuscitation depends on the degree of dehydration
Answer : C

9. Which type of urinary casts are solidified TammHorsfall mucoproteins secreted from the tubular epithelial cells of individual nephrons?
A. granular
B. hyaline
C. waxy
D. pigment
Answer : B

10. What does apoptosis mean?
A. programmed cell death
B. new vascular formation
C. uninhibited neural stimulation
D. premature muscular contraction
Answer : A

11. What is the most likely diagnosis of an erectile dysfunction patient with low plasma testosterone and high prolactin levels?
A. pituitary adenoma
B. adrenal adenoma
C. Kallmann syndrome
D. Klinefelter syndrome
Answer : A

12. What are the abnormalities that might accompany complete ureteral duplications?
A. reflux to the upper pole ureter, obstruction to the lower pole ureter
B. reflux to the lower pole ureter, obstruction to the upper pole ureter
C. left ureteropelvic junction obstruction, right ureterocele
D. right ureteropelvic junction obstruction, left ureterocele
Answer : B

13. What is the prime effect of antidiuretic hormone on kidneys?
A. increase collecting duct permeability
B. increase medullary blood flow
C. decrease cortical blood flow
D. decrease potassium secretion
Answer : A

14. What causes Cushing`s disease is:
A. bilateral adrenal hyperplasia
B. pituitary over secretion of ACTH
C. exogenous administration of glucocorticoids
D. immune-mediated disease
Answer : B

15. Which of the following is NOT a component of the normal semen?
A. zinc
B. fructose
C. prostate-specific antigen
D. alkaline phosphatase
Answer : D

16. What do the specialized cells, at the juxtaglomerular apparatus, produce?
A. erythropoietin
B. renin
C. angiotensin I
D. angiotensinogen
Answer : B

17. What is true regarding hematospermia?
A. should be investigated thoroughly like hematuria
B. is rarely associated with significant urologic pathology
C. carries a risk of infertility
D. mandates testicular biopsy
Answer : B

18. Where do Cowper`s gland ducts drain into?
A. ejaculatory ducts
B. prostatic urethra
C. membranous urethra
D. bulbous urethra
Answer : D

19. What is the best method to evaluate calcium levels in the urine?
A. from early morning urine sample
B. comparing urine and serum calcium at a given time
C. performing 24 urine collection
D. from a mid-stream urine sample
Answer : C

20. Which of the following lab results indicates prerenal failure?
A. serum BUN : creatinine > 20
B. urine [Na] < 30 mEq/L
C. Na excretion fraction < 1
D. all of the above
Answer : D

21. Between which 2fascial planes does the prostatic neurovascular bundle travel?
A. prostatic fascia and levator fascia
B. prostate capsule and prostatic fascia
C. Denonvilliers fascia and prostate capsule
D. Denonvilliers fascia and endopelvic fascia
Answer : A

22. What is the number of bacteria per high-power field microscopy that matches colony counts of 100,000/mL?
A. 100
B. 50
C. 10
D. 5
Answer : D

23. Which of the following conditions could result in white urine?
A. chyluria
B. bacteriuria
C. phosphaturia
D. all of the above
Answer : D

24. What is the nerve supply of the adrenal gland?
A. sympathetic to the medulla
B. parasympathetic to the medulla
C. sympathetic to the cortex
D. parasympathetic to the cortex
Answer : A

25. Which statement is false concerning microhematuria?
A. malignancy is identified in patients presenting with microhematuria more than in patients presenting with gross hematuria
B. microscopic hematuria is defined as > 3 red blood cells per high powered field (RBC/hpf) on a single specimen
C. warrants full hematuria workup
D. history of cigarette smoking is of significance
Answer : A

26. What do urine tests examine to detect hematuria?
A. catalase activity of erythrocytes
B. peroxidase activity of erythrocytes
C. lyase activity of erythrocytes
D. none of the above
Answer : B

27. What is the best initial therapy for hyponatremic dehydration?
A. administration of hypertonic saline
B. administration of crystalloid
C. administration of normal saline
D. administration of ringer lactate
Answer : C

28. The commonest neoplasms that metastasize to kidneys come from:
A. breasts
B. thyroids
C. lungs
D. liver
Answer : C

29. Regarding renal ectopia, usually, the adrenals:
A. are cross ectopic
B. are at their normal position
C. travel with the kidneys
D. undergo ischemic atrophy
Answer : B

30. Which microbe causes red diaper syndrome?
A. Serratia marcescens
B. Streptococcus pyogenes
C. Clostridium difficile
D. Staphylococcus saprophyticus
Answer : A

31. Which of the following is NOT a side effect of hydrochlorothiazide?
A. hypercholesterolemia
B. hyperuricemia
C. hypoglycemia
D. hypercalcemia
Answer : C

32. Serum testosterone should be measured:
A. at mid-day
B. at the hour of sleep
C. in the morning
D. late afternoon
Answer : C

33. Which action of thigh muscles could be impaired if the obturator nerve was injured during endoscopic resection of bladder tumors?
A. adduction
B. abduction
C. flexion
D. extension
Answer : A

34. Which agent should be avoided during living-related donor nephrectomy?
A. ice slush
B. heparin
C. norepinephrine
D. methylene blue
Answer : C

35. What helps in treating Candida albicans cystitis is:
A. sodium bicarbonate
B. phyto soya
C. ascorbic acid
D. sol palmetto
Answer : A

36. What nerve provides the major neural supply to the striated urinary sphincter and levator ani muscle?
A. somatic innervations
B. sympathetic fibers from T11 - L2
C. the pudendal nerve
D. the obturator nerve
Answer : C

37. What could cause autonomic dysreflexia?
A. full bladder or rectum
B. tooth extraction
C. hypertension medications
D. uncontrolled diabetes mellitus
Answer : A

38. What is the narrowest part of the ureter?
A. uretero-pelvic junction
B. uretero-vesical junction
C. where ureters cross the pelvic brim
D. where ureters cross the common iliac bifurcation
Answer : B

39. What is the most likely cause of large scrotal hematoma in neonates?
A. clotting factor VIII deficiency
B. clotting factor IX deficiency
C. breech delivery
D. scrotal cavernous haemangioma
Answer : C

40. What class of antibiotics might cause vestibular and/or auditory impairment?
A. aminoglycosides
B. ?antipseudomonal penicillins
C. cephalosporins
D. fluoroquinolones
Answer : A

41. What is false concerning coagulase splitting bacteria (Griess) test?
A. it is a reduction reaction that converts nitrate to nitrite
B. nitrazine reagent papers are used to elicit the reaction
C. it is false negative in diluted urine, on taking vitamin C, and in gram +ve bacteria
D. the reaction takes 4 minutes to complete
Answer : D

42. Which of the following does NOT affect serum creatinine?
A. gender
B. age
C. obstructing stone at left lower ureter
D. rhabdomyolysis
Answer : C

43. What is false about purple urine bagsyndrome?
A. occurs due to the interaction between the chemical components of the urine and polyvinyl chloride material in the urine bag
B. it is commonly symptomless
C. more common in female nursing home residents
D. commonly implicated bacteria are K. pneumoniae, P. mirabilis, E. coli
Answer : A

44. Which of the following explains infertility in liver cirrhosis male patients?
A. decrease plasma estradiol levels
B. increase plasma testosterone-estradiol-binding globulin levels
C. suppression of suprarenal androgens
D. exaggerated pituitary response to feedback hormones
Answer : B

45. During fluoroscopy, what is the main source of radiation hazards that urologists could be exposed to?
A. scattered radiation from the unleaded wall
B. scattered radiation from the patient
C. scattered radiation from the floor and ceiling
D. radiation from the primary beam
Answer : B

46. At which week of gestation do the primordial germ cells migrate to form the genital ridges?
A. third
B. fourth
C. fifth
D. seventh
Answer : C

47. Which of the following hormones, primarily, controls spermatogenesis?
A. GnRH
B. testosterone
C. LH
D. FSH
Answer : B

48. What vessels are located in the prostate neurovascular bundle?
A. Watson plexus
B. capsular arteries and veins
C. inferior vesical and midrectal vessels
D. Santorini plexus
Answer : B

49. Which layer lies between the superficial and deep inguinal lymph nodes?
A. Scarpa`s fascia
B. fascia lata
C. Dartos fascia
D. Camper`s fascia
Answer : B

50. How many days does spermatogenesis take in the man?
A. 16
B. 32
C. 64
D. 90
Answer : C