1000+ Urology Basic Science MCQ for CEED [Solved]

1. Which artery(ies) supply(ies) the prostate?
A. middle rectal
B. inferior vesical
C. a & b
D. none of the above
Answer : C

2. Which of the following is NOT a sex accessory tissue?
A. the prostate gland
B. seminal vesicles
C. epididymi
D. bulbourethral glands
Answer : C

3. Which of the following contributes second to the seminal fluid by volume?
A. seminal vesicles
B. the prostate
C. testes
D. bulbourethral glands
Answer : B

4. Which of the following is false regarding Addison`s disease?
A. autoimmune disease in 70% of the cases
B. diagnosed by the rapid ACTH stimulation test
C. characterized by low serum sodium and high potassium
D. may coexist with hyperthyroidism and diabetes mellitus
Answer : D

5. Which of the following does NOT increase PSA value?
A. trauma to the prostate
B. digital rectal examination
C. urinary retention
D. prostatitis
Answer : B

6. Which innervations mediate detumescence?
A. cavernous nerves
B. dorsal nerves of the penis
C. sympathetic nervous system
D. parasympathetic nervous system
Answer : C

7. Between which 2 fascial planes does the prostatic neurovascular bundle travel?
A. prostatic fascia and levator fascia
B. prostate capsule and prostatic fascia
C. Denonvilliers fascia and prostate capsule
D. Denonvilliers fascia and endopelvic fascia
Answer : A

8. Where do Cowper`s gland ducts drain into?
A. ejaculatory ducts
B. prostatic urethra
C. membranous urethra
D. bulbous urethra
Answer : D

9. What vessels are located in the prostate neurovascular bundle?
A. Watson plexus
B. capsular arteries and veins
C. inferior vesical and midrectal vessels
D. Santorini plexus
Answer : B

10. What is the most frequent anomaly associated with multicystic renal dysplasia?
A. ureteral atresia
B. vesicoureteral reflux
C. ureteropelvic junction obstruction
D. ureteral duplication
Answer : A

11. In utero, which hormone stimulates the development of the prostate gland?
A. estradiol
B. DHT
C. FSH
D. testosterone
Answer : B

12. What causes ureteral dilation during pregnancy is:
A. mechanical compression by the gravid uterus
B. physiological increase urine flow during pregnancy
C. elevated levels of progesterone
D. reflex inhibition of ureteral contractions
Answer : A

13. What is the most likely cause of large scrotal hematoma in neonates?
A. clotting factor VIII deficiency
B. clotting factor IX deficiency
C. breech delivery
D. scrotal cavernous haemangioma
Answer : C

14. During fluoroscopy, what is the main source of radiation hazards that urologists could be exposed to?
A. scattered radiation from the unleaded wall
B. scattered radiation from the patient
C. scattered radiation from the floor and ceiling
D. radiation from the primary beam
Answer : B

15. What is false concerning fosfomycin antibiotic?
A. has a limited cross-resistance with most common antibacterial agents
B. causes injection site reactions
C. is active against most uropathogens
D. is effective as a single-dose agent
Answer : B

16. What is the half-life of ?-HCG?
A. 5 7 days
B. 24 36 hours
C. 2 3 days
D. 12 24 hours
Answer : B

17. Renal blood flow is autoregulated by:
A. sympathetic nervous system
B. parasympathetic nervous system
C. urinary output
D. afferent arteriolar resistance
Answer : D

18. What do urine tests examine to detect hematuria?
A. catalase activity of erythrocytes
B. peroxidase activity of erythrocytes
C. lyase activity of erythrocytes
D. none of the above
Answer : B

19. Which of the following is NOT related to von Hippel-Lindau disease?
A. retinal hemangioblastoma
B. ureteral atresia
C. pheochromocytomas
D. multiple cysts in the pancreas and kidneys
Answer : B

20. Which of the following might cause sterile pyuria?
A. renal tuberculosis
B. urinary tract stones
C. interstitial cystitis
D. all of the above
Answer : D

21. What is false about indinavir sulfate stones?
A. intratubular crystal formation might occur
B. CT cannot reliably confirm the presence of indinavir calculi
C. stone formation is demonstrated in 80% of patients taking the medication
D. is a protease inhibitor with poor solubility and significant urinary excretion
Answer : C

22. Which of the following is NOT a cause of hypocitratura?
A. high protein diet
B. hypokalaemia
C. proximal renal tubular acidosis
D. idiopathic
Answer : C

23. All of the following conditions are related to obesity syndrome, EXCEPT:
A. super fertility
B. increase aromatization reaction
C. increase resistance to circulating insulin
D. sleep apnea
Answer : A

24. In which condition can NOT creatinine level be 1200 mg/dL?
A. an aspirate of pelvic urinoma
B. in untreated end-stage renal failure disease
C. a sample from a wound drain after pyeloplasty
D. a sample from suprapubic catheter
Answer : B

25. The epithelial component of the prostate consists of all of the following, EXCEPT:
A. basal cells
B. intermediate cells
C. tubulo-columnar cells
D. neuroendocrine cells
Answer : C

26. What causes pink diaper syndrome is (are):
A. Staphylococcus epidermidis in the urine
B. dried urate crystals on the diaper
C. Adenovirus 11 in the urine
D. Candidiasis in the urine
Answer : B

27. What causes pure testicular feminization is:
A. over estrogen synthesis
B. defective end-organ androgen response
C. extra X chromosome (XXY)
D. failure of genital ridge regression
Answer : B

28. Which of the renal artery occlusive conditions, commonly, do NOT affect renal function?
A. intimal fibroplasia
B. medial fibroplasia
C. medial hyperplasia
D. serosal hyperplasia
Answer : B

29. What are the abnormalities that might accompany complete ureteral duplications?
A. reflux to the upper pole ureter, obstruction to the lower pole ureter
B. reflux to the lower pole ureter, obstruction to the upper pole ureter
C. left ureteropelvic junction obstruction, right ureterocele
D. right ureteropelvic junction obstruction, left ureterocele
Answer : B

30. Where is Santorini plexus located?
A. at either side of the prostate
B. in the pubo-prostatic space
C. anterior to the seminal vesicles
D. posterior to the vaso-epididymal junction
Answer : B

31. On tracing the IVU dye down, in a dilated ureter, the dilation stops at a level then continues as a normal calibre ureter. What could the pathology be?
A. lower ureteral stricture
B. ureteral valve
C. modified Lich-Gregoire ureteral reimplantation
D. residual dilation of hydroureter
Answer : B

32. Which antibiotic is the best to treat soft tissue infection with methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) in hospitalized patients?
A. vancomycin
B. cefotaxime
C. penicillin G
D. tobramycin
Answer : A

33. How does estrogen prevent lower UTI in postmenopausal women?
A. increasing vaginal secretions
B. decreasing vaginal pH
C. increasing normal vaginal flora
D. decreasing bacterial adherence
Answer : B

34. Which statement is false concerning the gubernaculua?
A. degenerate after birth
B. called the caudal genital ligaments
C. help guide the testes down through the inguinal canals
D. represent undifferentiated mesenchyme
Answer : A

35. What type of renal tubular acidosis (RTA) does demonstrate aldosterone resistance?
A. type 1
B. type 2
C. type 3
D. type 4
Answer : D

36. What is the nature of the prostate-specific antigen?
A. protease
B. lyase
C. carboxylase
D. hydrolase
Answer : A

37. Which medicine(s) might enhance hypoprothrombinemic effect on oral anticoagulants?
A. allopurinol
B. aminoglycosides
C. cimetidine
D. all of the above
Answer : D

38. Which of the following process(es) is (are) reversible?
A. 5?-reductase enzyme reduces testosterone to DHT
B. aromatase enzyme reduces testosterone to estrogen
C. PSA molecule binds to ?1-antichymotrypsin and ?2-macroglobulin
D. none of the above
Answer : D

39. The manifestations of autonomic dysreflexia include:
A. hypotension and tachycardia
B. hypotension and bradycardia
C. hypertension and tachycardia
D. hypertension and bradycardia
Answer : D

40. Which statement is false concerning microhematuria?
A. malignancy is identified in patients presenting with microhematuria more than in patients presenting with gross hematuria
B. microscopic hematuria is defined as > 3 red blood cells per high powered field (RBC/hpf) on a single specimen
C. warrants full hematuria workup
D. history of cigarette smoking is of significance
Answer : A

41. The mature genitourinary system develops from all of the following embryonic sources, EXCEPT:
A. intermediate mesoderm
B. mesothelium of celomic cavity
C. endoderm of the urogenital sinus
D. somatic ectoderm
Answer : D

42. Which ?- adrenergic receptor subtype mediates smooth muscle contraction of the prostate?
A. ?1-A
B. ?2-A
C. ?1-B
D. ?2-B
Answer : A