1000+ Urology Basic Science Multiple Choice Question Answer [Solved]

1. Which statement regarding post-obstructive diuresis (POD) is false?
A. urine production exceeding 200 ml/hr for 2 consecutive hours or producing greater than 3 L of urine in 24 hours is diagnostic of POD
B. pathologic POD can be exacerbated by excessive fluid replacement
C. the replacement fluid choice is ringer lactate
D. fluid resuscitation depends on the degree of dehydration
Answer : C

2. In which condition can NOT creatinine level be 1200 mg/dL?
A. an aspirate of pelvic urinoma
B. in untreated end-stage renal failure disease
C. a sample from a wound drain after pyeloplasty
D. a sample from suprapubic catheter
Answer : B

3. What is the most likely diagnosis of an erectile dysfunction patient with low plasma testosterone and high prolactin levels?
A. pituitary adenoma
B. adrenal adenoma
C. Kallmann syndrome
D. Klinefelter syndrome
Answer : A

4. Which agent is safe to kidneys?
A. amoxicillin
B. gentamycin
C. diclofenac
D. herb extract
Answer : A

5. To which region does pain, from the left mid ureter, refer to?
A. the loin region
B. the inguinal region
C. the umbilical region
D. the penis or clitoris
Answer : B

6. What is the creatinine clearance in ml/min for a 70 kg man aging 50 yrs. with 1.1 mg/dL serum creatinine?
A. 79.54
B. 44.19
C. 84.15
D. 94.25
Answer : A

7. What are the posterior relations of the kidneys?
A. quadratus lumborum and diaphragm
B. psoas and diaphragm
C. psoas and latissimus dorsi
D. transversus abdominus and paraspinous
Answer : A

8. Renal blood flow is autoregulated by:
A. sympathetic nervous system
B. parasympathetic nervous system
C. urinary output
D. afferent arteriolar resistance
Answer : D

9. Which of the following is NOT related to von Hippel-Lindau disease?
A. retinal hemangioblastoma
B. ureteral atresia
C. pheochromocytomas
D. multiple cysts in the pancreas and kidneys
Answer : B

10. Hematuria of glomerular origin is associated with:
A. significant proteinuria, dysmorphic RBCs, RBC casts
B. glycosuria, eumorphic RBCs, WBC casts
C. hypercalciuria, eumorphic RBCs, granular casts
D. proteinuria, dysmorphic RBCs, hyaline casts
Answer : A

11. Which part of the male urethra is the narrowest?
A. the membranous
B. the bladder neck
C. the bulbous
D. the external urethral meatus
Answer : D

12. What is the most frequent anomaly associated with multicystic renal dysplasia?
A. ureteral atresia
B. vesicoureteral reflux
C. ureteropelvic junction obstruction
D. ureteral duplication
Answer : A

13. Which organism is capable of proliferation in the urine and causing urethritis?
A. Ureaplasma urealyticum
B. Chlamydia trachomatis
C. E. coli
D. Neisseria gonorrhea
Answer : A

14. Which of the following conditions could happen in chronic pancreatitis and malabsorption syndrome with steatorrhea?
A. hyperoxaluria
B. hypercalciuria
C. hyperuricosuria
D. hyperphosphateuria
Answer : A

15. At which condition is alpha-fetoprotein most frequently elevated?
A. infiltrating ductal carcinoma of the breast
B. seminoma
C. hepatocellular carcinoma
D. malignant melanoma
Answer : C

16. What is the nerve supply of the adrenal gland?
A. sympathetic to the medulla
B. parasympathetic to the medulla
C. sympathetic to the cortex
D. parasympathetic to the cortex
Answer : A

17. Which anomaly might accompany horseshoe kidneys?
A. ureteropelvic junction obstruction
B. ureterocele
C. ureteral reflux
D. ureteral atresia
Answer : A

18. What is the narrowest part of the ureter?
A. uretero-pelvic junction
B. uretero-vesical junction
C. where ureters cross the pelvic brim
D. where ureters cross the common iliac bifurcation
Answer : B

19. Which of the following is NOT a cause of hypocitraturia?
A. high protein diet
B. hypokalaemia
C. proximal renal tubular acidosis
D. idiopathic
Answer : C

20. Which group(s) of lymph nodes drain(s) the glans penis?
A. internal and external iliac
B. superficial inguinal
C. deep inguinal
D. superficial and deep inguinal
Answer : A

21. Which period of intrauterine life does the process of organ formation (organogenesis) take place?
A. 9 12 weeks
B. 12 15 weeks
C. 15 18 weeks
D. 18 21 weeks
Answer : A

22. Which of the prostate medications could result in retrograde ejculation?
A. tamsulosin
B. doxazosin
C. dutasteride
D. alfuzosin
Answer : A

23. What vessels are located in the prostate neurovascular bundle?
A. Watson plexus
B. capsular arteries and veins
C. inferior vesical and midrectal vessels
D. Santorini plexus
Answer : B

24. What does make UTI more common in mid-aged females than in males?
A. short female urethra
B. pregnancy
C. vaginal colonization with enterobacteria
D. all the above
Answer : D

25. Which structure is a part of the renal hilum?
A. renal pelvis
B. branches of the renal artery
C. tributaries of renal vein
D. all of the above
Answer : D

26. Which statement is false concerning smegma?
A. it is the white secretion produced under the foreskin in males
B. it has a crucial role in penile cancer development
C. it contains lysozymes, chymotrypsin, neutrophil elastase and cytokines
D. female smegma can be found between the labia
Answer : B

27. Which disease is described best by the following manifestations: grand mal epilepsy, mental retardation, hypertension, angiomyolipoma, adenoma sebaceum, bilateral enlarged kidneys, and normal renal function?
A. autosomal dominant polycystic kidney disease
B. von Hippel-Lindau disease
C. tuberous sclerosis
D. Sturge-Webber syndrome
Answer : C

28. What causes pure testicular feminization is:
A. over estrogen synthesis
B. defective end-organ androgen response
C. extra X chromosome (XXY)
D. failure of genital ridge regression
Answer : B

29. Which lab results indicate poor prognosis of male infertility?
A. azoospermia; normal FSH; increase LH
B. azoospermia; decrease FSH; normal LH
C. oligospermia; increase FSH; normal LH
D. oligospermia; normal FSH; decrease LH
Answer : C

30. What is true regarding hematospermia?
A. should be investigated thoroughly like hematuria
B. is rarely associated with significant urologic pathology
C. carries a risk of infertility
D. mandates testicular biopsy
Answer : B

31. Adult size of bladder capacity is achieved at what age?
A. 5 6 yrs.
B. 7 8 yrs.
C. 9 10 yrs.
D. 11 12 yrs.
Answer : C

32. Which of the following is false regarding Addison`s disease?
A. autoimmune disease in 70% of the cases
B. diagnosed by the rapid ACTH stimulation test
C. characterized by low serum sodium and high potassium
D. may coexist with hyperthyroidism and diabetes mellitus
Answer : D

33. Which of the following diabetes mellitus treatments causes erectile dysfunction?
A. long-acting insulin
B. metformin
C. sulfonylurea
D. none of the above
Answer : D

34. Which agent should be avoided during living-related donor nephrectomy?
A. ice slush
B. heparin
C. norepinephrine
D. methylene blue
Answer : C

35. The commonest neoplasms that metastasize to kidneys come from:
A. breasts
B. thyroids
C. lungs
D. liver
Answer : C

36. Which of the following is NOT a component of the normal semen?
A. zinc
B. fructose
C. prostate-specific antigen
D. alkaline phosphatase
Answer : D

37. What is false concerning PSA molecule?
A. the free form of PSA exists in small proportions in the body, and found mainly in BPH and in the ejaculate
B. ?1- anti chymotrypsin binds to 3 epitopes of the PSA molecule to form a complexed PSA
C. ?2- macroglobulin binds to 5 epitopes of the PSA molecule to form a complexed PSA
D. the purified PSA molecule has a molecular weight of 90 kDa
Answer : D

38. Which of the following does NOT increase in prostate cancer?
A. human kallikrein 2
B. pro-PSA
C. free PSA
D. complexed PSA
Answer : C

39. What is false concerning coagulase splitting bacteria (Griess) test?
A. it is a reduction reaction that converts nitrate to nitrite
B. nitrazine reagent papers are used to elicit the reaction
C. it is false negative in diluted urine, on taking vitamin C, and in gram +ve bacteria
D. the reaction takes 4 minutes to complete
Answer : D

40. Which statement explains the first event in the micturition reflex?
A. opening of internal bladder sphincter
B. fall in urethral pressure
C. rise in intravesical pressure
D. cessation of sphincter EMG activity
Answer : D

41. How many renal papillae are there in a typical kidney?
A. 4 to 6
B. 7 to 9
C. 10 to 12
D. 13 to 14
Answer : B

42. Which action of thigh muscles could be impaired if the obturator nerve was injured during endoscopic resection of bladder tumors?
A. adduction
B. abduction
C. flexion
D. extension
Answer : A

43. Which of the following is (are) direct branch(es) of the abdominal aorta?
A. median sacral artery
B. inferior phrenic arteries
C. gonadal arteries
D. all of the above
Answer : D