Urology Basic Science MCQ Solved Paper for NMAT
Thursday 9th of March 2023
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1. All of the following conditions are related to obesity syndrome, EXCEPT:
A. super fertility
B. increase aromatization reaction
C. increase resistance to circulating insulin
D. sleep apnea
Answer : A
A. super fertility
B. increase aromatization reaction
C. increase resistance to circulating insulin
D. sleep apnea
Answer : A
2. On tracing the IVU dye down, in a dilated ureter, the dilation stops at a level then continues as a normal calibre ureter. What could the pathology be?
A. lower ureteral stricture
B. ureteral valve
C. modified Lich-Gregoire ureteral reimplantation
D. residual dilation of hydroureter
Answer : B
A. lower ureteral stricture
B. ureteral valve
C. modified Lich-Gregoire ureteral reimplantation
D. residual dilation of hydroureter
Answer : B
3. Where is Santorini plexus located?
A. at either side of the prostate
B. in the pubo-prostatic space
C. anterior to the seminal vesicles
D. posterior to the vaso-epididymal junction
Answer : B
A. at either side of the prostate
B. in the pubo-prostatic space
C. anterior to the seminal vesicles
D. posterior to the vaso-epididymal junction
Answer : B
4. Which agent should be avoided during living-related donor nephrectomy?
A. ice slush
B. heparin
C. norepinephrine
D. methylene blue
Answer : C
A. ice slush
B. heparin
C. norepinephrine
D. methylene blue
Answer : C
5. Which drug does NOT result in urinary retention?
A. terazosin, antihypertensive
B. benzodiazepines, psychotropic medicine
C. levodopa, anti-Parkinsonism medicine
D. brimonidine, glaucoma eye drops
Answer : A
A. terazosin, antihypertensive
B. benzodiazepines, psychotropic medicine
C. levodopa, anti-Parkinsonism medicine
D. brimonidine, glaucoma eye drops
Answer : A
6. To which group of lymph nodes do tumors at the anterior superior area of the bladder, first, drain?
A. hypogastric
B. internal iliac
C. external iliac
D. lateral sacral
Answer : C
A. hypogastric
B. internal iliac
C. external iliac
D. lateral sacral
Answer : C
7. Where is the gene sex-determining region (SRY) located at?
A. long arm of X chromosome
B. long arm of Y chromosome
C. short arm of Y chromosome
D. short arm of X chromosome
Answer : C
A. long arm of X chromosome
B. long arm of Y chromosome
C. short arm of Y chromosome
D. short arm of X chromosome
Answer : C
8. Which statement concerning urine pH is false?
A. influenced by food and medications
B. renal stones form at the extremes of pH range
C. reliable only when measured by 24 hr. urine collection
D. ranges from 4 7
Answer : C
A. influenced by food and medications
B. renal stones form at the extremes of pH range
C. reliable only when measured by 24 hr. urine collection
D. ranges from 4 7
Answer : C
9. Which of the following is NOT a sex accessory tissue?
A. the prostate gland
B. seminal vesicles
C. epididymi
D. bulbourethral glands
Answer : C
A. the prostate gland
B. seminal vesicles
C. epididymi
D. bulbourethral glands
Answer : C
10. What is false concerning PSA molecule?
A. the free form of PSA exists in small proportions in the body, and found mainly in BPH and in the ejaculate
B. ?1- anti chymotrypsin binds to 3 epitopes of the PSA molecule to form a complexed PSA
C. ?2- macroglobulin binds to 5 epitopes of the PSA molecule to form a complexed PSA
D. the purified PSA molecule has a molecular weight of 90 kDa
Answer : D
A. the free form of PSA exists in small proportions in the body, and found mainly in BPH and in the ejaculate
B. ?1- anti chymotrypsin binds to 3 epitopes of the PSA molecule to form a complexed PSA
C. ?2- macroglobulin binds to 5 epitopes of the PSA molecule to form a complexed PSA
D. the purified PSA molecule has a molecular weight of 90 kDa
Answer : D
11. What vessels are located in the prostate neurovascular bundle?
A. Watson plexus
B. capsular arteries and veins
C. inferior vesical and midrectal vessels
D. Santorini plexus
Answer : B
A. Watson plexus
B. capsular arteries and veins
C. inferior vesical and midrectal vessels
D. Santorini plexus
Answer : B
12. Which of the following lab results indicates prerenal failure?
A. serum BUN : creatinine > 20
B. urine [Na] < 30 mEq/L
C. Na excretion fraction < 1
D. all of the above
Answer : D
A. serum BUN : creatinine > 20
B. urine [Na] < 30 mEq/L
C. Na excretion fraction < 1
D. all of the above
Answer : D
13. Which disease is described best by the following manifestations: grand mal epilepsy, mental retardation, hypertension, angiomyolipoma, adenoma sebaceum, bilateral enlarged kidneys, and normal renal function?
A. autosomal dominant polycystic kidney disease
B. von Hippel-Lindau disease
C. tuberous sclerosis
D. Sturge-Webber syndrome
Answer : C
A. autosomal dominant polycystic kidney disease
B. von Hippel-Lindau disease
C. tuberous sclerosis
D. Sturge-Webber syndrome
Answer : C
14. What is the prime effect of antidiuretic hormone on kidneys?
A. increase collecting duct permeability
B. increase medullary blood flow
C. decrease cortical blood flow
D. decrease potassium secretion
Answer : A
A. increase collecting duct permeability
B. increase medullary blood flow
C. decrease cortical blood flow
D. decrease potassium secretion
Answer : A
15. What does make UTI more common in mid-aged females than in males?
A. short female urethra
B. pregnancy
C. vaginal colonization with enterobacteria
D. all the above
Answer : D
A. short female urethra
B. pregnancy
C. vaginal colonization with enterobacteria
D. all the above
Answer : D
16. Hematuria of glomerular origin is associated with:
A. significant proteinuria, dysmorphic RBCs, RBC casts
B. glycosuria, eumorphic RBCs, WBC casts
C. hypercalciuria, eumorphic RBCs, granular casts
D. proteinuria, dysmorphic RBCs, hyaline casts
Answer : A
A. significant proteinuria, dysmorphic RBCs, RBC casts
B. glycosuria, eumorphic RBCs, WBC casts
C. hypercalciuria, eumorphic RBCs, granular casts
D. proteinuria, dysmorphic RBCs, hyaline casts
Answer : A
17. Which of the following conditions could happen in chronic pancreatitis and malabsorption syndrome with steatorrhea?
A. hyperoxaluria
B. hypercalciuria
C. hyperuricosuria
D. hyperphosphateuria
Answer : A
A. hyperoxaluria
B. hypercalciuria
C. hyperuricosuria
D. hyperphosphateuria
Answer : A
18. What is the nature of the prostate-specific antigen?
A. protease
B. lyase
C. carboxylase
D. hydrolase
Answer : A
A. protease
B. lyase
C. carboxylase
D. hydrolase
Answer : A
19. Which statement is false concerning the epididymis?
A. each epididymis can be palpable at the postero-lateral surface of the testis
B. has 3 parts; head, body, and tail
C. new batches of sperms stay in the epididymis around 2 days for maturation
D. shares the same blood supply of the testis
Answer : C
A. each epididymis can be palpable at the postero-lateral surface of the testis
B. has 3 parts; head, body, and tail
C. new batches of sperms stay in the epididymis around 2 days for maturation
D. shares the same blood supply of the testis
Answer : C
20. What is the most significant innervation of the vas deferens?
A. sympathetic nervous system
B. parasympathetic nervous system
C. somatic nervous system
D. none of the above
Answer : A
A. sympathetic nervous system
B. parasympathetic nervous system
C. somatic nervous system
D. none of the above
Answer : A
21. Which of the following is false regarding zona glomeruloza?
A. the most superficial layer of the adrenal cortex
B. responses to increased potassium levels, renin or decreased renal blood flow
C. it causes pheochromocytoma
D. secretes aldosterone
Answer : C
A. the most superficial layer of the adrenal cortex
B. responses to increased potassium levels, renin or decreased renal blood flow
C. it causes pheochromocytoma
D. secretes aldosterone
Answer : C
22. When should a 70 yrs. man with 40 ml prostate volume, and total PSA of 2.0 ng/ml, go for a prostate biopsy?
A. if PSA reading had exceeded 2.7 ng/ml over 12 months
B. if free PSA reading was less than 0.4 ng/ml
C. if total PSA reading was greater than 8 ng/ml
D. any of the above
Answer : D
A. if PSA reading had exceeded 2.7 ng/ml over 12 months
B. if free PSA reading was less than 0.4 ng/ml
C. if total PSA reading was greater than 8 ng/ml
D. any of the above
Answer : D
23. Which of the following is NOT a component of the normal semen?
A. zinc
B. fructose
C. prostate-specific antigen
D. alkaline phosphatase
Answer : D
A. zinc
B. fructose
C. prostate-specific antigen
D. alkaline phosphatase
Answer : D
24. What is the most frequent anomaly associated with multicystic renal dysplasia?
A. ureteral atresia
B. vesicoureteral reflux
C. ureteropelvic junction obstruction
D. ureteral duplication
Answer : A
A. ureteral atresia
B. vesicoureteral reflux
C. ureteropelvic junction obstruction
D. ureteral duplication
Answer : A
25. At which week of gestation do the primordial germ cells migrate to form the genital ridges?
A. third
B. fourth
C. fifth
D. seventh
Answer : C
A. third
B. fourth
C. fifth
D. seventh
Answer : C
26. What is true regarding hematospermia?
A. should be investigated thoroughly like hematuria
B. is rarely associated with significant urologic pathology
C. carries a risk of infertility
D. mandates testicular biopsy
Answer : B
A. should be investigated thoroughly like hematuria
B. is rarely associated with significant urologic pathology
C. carries a risk of infertility
D. mandates testicular biopsy
Answer : B
27. Which of the following does NOT affect serum creatinine?
A. gender
B. age
C. obstructing stone at left lower ureter
D. rhabdomyolysis
Answer : C
A. gender
B. age
C. obstructing stone at left lower ureter
D. rhabdomyolysis
Answer : C
28. What are the first and second most common zones from where prostate cancers arise?
A. central then transitional
B. peripheral then transitional
C. peripheral then central
D. transitional then central
Answer : B
A. central then transitional
B. peripheral then transitional
C. peripheral then central
D. transitional then central
Answer : B
29. Which artery is NOT a branch of the anterior division of internal iliac artery?
A. superior vesical artery
B. inferior vesical artery
C. superior gluteal artery
D. inferior gluteal artery
Answer : C
A. superior vesical artery
B. inferior vesical artery
C. superior gluteal artery
D. inferior gluteal artery
Answer : C
30. In which organelle in Leydig cell does testosterone synthesis take place?
A. ribosome
B. mitochondria
C. Golgi apparatus
D. endoplasmic reticulum
Answer : D
A. ribosome
B. mitochondria
C. Golgi apparatus
D. endoplasmic reticulum
Answer : D
31. Regarding renal ectopia, usually, the adrenals:
A. are cross ectopic
B. are at their normal position
C. travel with the kidneys
D. undergo ischemic atrophy
Answer : B
A. are cross ectopic
B. are at their normal position
C. travel with the kidneys
D. undergo ischemic atrophy
Answer : B
32. What antibiotic could result in red man syndrome?
A. vancomycin
B. clindamycin
C. streptomycin
D. tobramycin
Answer : A
A. vancomycin
B. clindamycin
C. streptomycin
D. tobramycin
Answer : A
33. Where do Cowper`s gland ducts drain into?
A. ejaculatory ducts
B. prostatic urethra
C. membranous urethra
D. bulbous urethra
Answer : D
A. ejaculatory ducts
B. prostatic urethra
C. membranous urethra
D. bulbous urethra
Answer : D
34. By which of the following structures, do the fused lower poles of hoarseshoe kidneys get trapped during embryologic ascent?
A. inferior mesenteric artery
B. superior mesenteric artery
C. celiac artery
D. common iliac artery
Answer : A
A. inferior mesenteric artery
B. superior mesenteric artery
C. celiac artery
D. common iliac artery
Answer : A
35. What does apoptosis mean?
A. programmed cell death
B. new vascular formation
C. uninhibited neural stimulation
D. premature muscular contraction
Answer : A
A. programmed cell death
B. new vascular formation
C. uninhibited neural stimulation
D. premature muscular contraction
Answer : A
36. Which part of the prostate is traversed by the ejaculatory duct:
A. central zone
B. peripheral zone
C. transitional zone
D. fibromuscular stroma
Answer : A
A. central zone
B. peripheral zone
C. transitional zone
D. fibromuscular stroma
Answer : A
37. What is the most significant complication of cyclosporine?
A. hepatic toxicity
B. renal toxicity
C. neural toxicity
D. cardiac toxicity
Answer : B
A. hepatic toxicity
B. renal toxicity
C. neural toxicity
D. cardiac toxicity
Answer : B
38. Which medicine(s) might enhance hypoprothrombinemic effect on oral anticoagulants?
A. allopurinol
B. aminoglycosides
C. cimetidine
D. all of the above
Answer : D
A. allopurinol
B. aminoglycosides
C. cimetidine
D. all of the above
Answer : D
39. Beside renal excretion of sodium, what does atrial natriuretic hormone cause?
A. constriction of renal afferent arterioles
B. renin inhibition
C. aldosterone stimulation
D. rise in systemic blood pressure
Answer : B
A. constriction of renal afferent arterioles
B. renin inhibition
C. aldosterone stimulation
D. rise in systemic blood pressure
Answer : B
40. What is the earliest clinical sign of puberty in boys?
A. hoarseness of voice
B. enlargement of testes
C. appearance of axillary hair
D. change in body odor
Answer : B
A. hoarseness of voice
B. enlargement of testes
C. appearance of axillary hair
D. change in body odor
Answer : B
41. Bacterial resistance to antibiotics may occur because of:
A. inherited chromosomal-mediated resistance
B. acquired chromosomal-mediated resistance
C. extrachromosomal-mediated resistance
D. all of the above
Answer : D
A. inherited chromosomal-mediated resistance
B. acquired chromosomal-mediated resistance
C. extrachromosomal-mediated resistance
D. all of the above
Answer : D
42. Which statement is false concerning smegma?
A. it is the white secretion produced under the foreskin in males
B. it has a crucial role in penile cancer development
C. it contains lysozymes, chymotrypsin, neutrophil elastase and cytokines
D. female smegma can be found between the labia
Answer : B
A. it is the white secretion produced under the foreskin in males
B. it has a crucial role in penile cancer development
C. it contains lysozymes, chymotrypsin, neutrophil elastase and cytokines
D. female smegma can be found between the labia
Answer : B
43. Which statement is true about the female urethra?
A. harder to catheterize when compared to the male urethra
B. 4 inch long
C. opens into the vestibule below the clitoris
D. gets wider at the post-menopausal age
Answer : C
A. harder to catheterize when compared to the male urethra
B. 4 inch long
C. opens into the vestibule below the clitoris
D. gets wider at the post-menopausal age
Answer : C
44. Which of the following is (are) direct branch(es) of the abdominal aorta?
A. median sacral artery
B. inferior phrenic arteries
C. gonadal arteries
D. all of the above
Answer : D
A. median sacral artery
B. inferior phrenic arteries
C. gonadal arteries
D. all of the above
Answer : D
45. Branches of what artery travel under the endopelvic fascia form the prostate to the sidewall of the pelvis?
A. obturator artery
B. midrectal artery
C. inferior vesical artery
D. pudendal artery
Answer : D
A. obturator artery
B. midrectal artery
C. inferior vesical artery
D. pudendal artery
Answer : D
46. Which part of the male urethra is the narrowest?
A. the membranous
B. the bladder neck
C. the bulbous
D. the external urethral meatus
Answer : D
A. the membranous
B. the bladder neck
C. the bulbous
D. the external urethral meatus
Answer : D
47. Which statement is false concerning capacitation of spermatozoa?
A. occurs after acrosome reaction
B. entails removal of a glycoprotein layer
C. it is a biochemical event of sperm maturation
D. changes occur in the female genital tract
Answer : A
A. occurs after acrosome reaction
B. entails removal of a glycoprotein layer
C. it is a biochemical event of sperm maturation
D. changes occur in the female genital tract
Answer : A
48. The manifestations of autonomic dysreflexia include:
A. hypotension and tachycardia
B. hypotension and bradycardia
C. hypertension and tachycardia
D. hypertension and bradycardia
Answer : D
A. hypotension and tachycardia
B. hypotension and bradycardia
C. hypertension and tachycardia
D. hypertension and bradycardia
Answer : D
49. Which statement explains the first event in the micturition reflex?
A. opening of internal bladder sphincter
B. fall in urethral pressure
C. rise in intravesical pressure
D. cessation of sphincter EMG activity
Answer : D
A. opening of internal bladder sphincter
B. fall in urethral pressure
C. rise in intravesical pressure
D. cessation of sphincter EMG activity
Answer : D
50. Which of the following conditions could result in white urine?
A. chyluria
B. bacteriuria
C. phosphaturia
D. all of the above
Answer : D
A. chyluria
B. bacteriuria
C. phosphaturia
D. all of the above
Answer : D
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