Urology Basic Science 1000+ MCQ with answer for CLAT PG

1. Which lab results indicate poor prognosis of male infertility?
A. azoospermia; normal FSH; increase LH
B. azoospermia; decrease FSH; normal LH
C. oligospermia; increase FSH; normal LH
D. oligospermia; normal FSH; decrease LH
Answer : C

2. Which organ contributes most to the seminal fluid volume?
A. testes
B. prostate
C. seminal vesicles
D. bulbourethral glands
Answer : C

3. What is the narrowest part of the ureter?
A. uretero-pelvic junction
B. uretero-vesical junction
C. where ureters cross the pelvic brim
D. where ureters cross the common iliac bifurcation
Answer : B

4. Which type of renal stone crystals is known as coffin lid?
A. oxalate
B. struvite
C. urate
D. cystine
Answer : B

5. Which part of the prostate is traversed by the ejaculatory duct:
A. central zone
B. peripheral zone
C. transitional zone
D. fibromuscular stroma
Answer : A

6. What is the most likely diagnosis of an erectile dysfunction patient with low plasma testosterone and high prolactin levels?
A. pituitary adenoma
B. adrenal adenoma
C. Kallmann syndrome
D. Klinefelter syndrome
Answer : A

7. Regarding multicystic kidneys, at what age does the compensatory renal growth end?
A. at birth
B. 2 years
C. at puberty
D. none of the above
Answer : B

8. Which statement regarding post-obstructive diuresis (POD) is false?
A. urine production exceeding 200 ml/hr for 2 consecutive hours or producing greater than 3 L of urine in 24 hours is diagnostic of POD
B. pathologic POD can be exacerbated by excessive fluid replacement
C. the replacement fluid choice is ringer lactate
D. fluid resuscitation depends on the degree of dehydration
Answer : C

9. The mature genitourinary system develops from all of the following embryonic sources, EXCEPT:
A. intermediate mesoderm
B. mesothelium of celomic cavity
C. endoderm of the urogenital sinus
D. somatic ectoderm
Answer : D

10. In which condition can NOT creatinine level be 1200 mg/dL?
A. an aspirate of pelvic urinoma
B. in untreated end-stage renal failure disease
C. a sample from a wound drain after pyeloplasty
D. a sample from suprapubic catheter
Answer : B

11. Which agent is most likely to cause hemorrhagic cystitis?
A. cisplatin
B. ifosfamide
C. phosphomycin
D. amphotericin B
Answer : B

12. Which of the following carries the greatest risk of HIV transmission to health care workers?
A. splash of patient`s blood to the eyes
B. splash of patient`s blood to the mouth
C. surgical suture needle stick
D. hollow bore needle stick
Answer : D

13. From where does the main parasympathetic efferent innervation to the pelvic plexus arise?
A. S1
B. S2-S4
C. T11-L2
D. L3-S1
Answer : B

14. Which part of the male urethra is the narrowest?
A. the membranous
B. the bladder neck
C. the bulbous
D. the external urethral meatus
Answer : D

15. What is the appropriate intravenous maintenance fluid for a 16 kg girl?
A. 43 ml/hr of normal saline
B. 78 ml/hr of ¼ normal saline
C. 69 ml/hr of ½ normal saline
D. 54 ml/hr of ¼ normal saline
Answer : D

16. Which class of the following agents does NOT impair spermatogenesis?
A. alkylating agents
B. phenothiazines
C. antiandrogens
D. prostaglandins
Answer : B

17. When should a 70 yrs. man with 40 ml prostate volume, and total PSA of 2.0 ng/ml, go for a prostate biopsy?
A. if PSA reading had exceeded 2.7 ng/ml over 12 months
B. if free PSA reading was less than 0.4 ng/ml
C. if total PSA reading was greater than 8 ng/ml
D. any of the above
Answer : D

18. Adult size of bladder capacity is achieved at what age?
A. 5 6 yrs.
B. 7 8 yrs.
C. 9 10 yrs.
D. 11 12 yrs.
Answer : C

19. What is the most likely cause of large scrotal hematoma in neonates?
A. clotting factor VIII deficiency
B. clotting factor IX deficiency
C. breech delivery
D. scrotal cavernous haemangioma
Answer : C

20. Which organism is capable of proliferation in the urine and causing urethritis?
A. Ureaplasma urealyticum
B. Chlamydia trachomatis
C. E. coli
D. Neisseria gonorrhea
Answer : A

21. What class of antibiotics might cause vestibular and/or auditory impairment?
A. aminoglycosides
B. ?antipseudomonal penicillins
C. cephalosporins
D. fluoroquinolones
Answer : A

22. What fascal layer(s) cover(s) the prostate?
A. Denonvilliers fascia
B. prostatic fascia
C. levator fascia
D. all of the above
Answer : D

23. What antibiotic could result in red man syndrome?
A. vancomycin
B. clindamycin
C. streptomycin
D. tobramycin
Answer : A

24. All of the following develop from the mesonephric ducts, EXCEPT:
A. vas deferens
B. seminal vesicles
C. appendix epididymis
D. appendix testis
Answer : D

25. In utero, which hormone stimulates the development of Wolffian ducts?
A. estradiol
B. DHT
C. FSH
D. testosterone
Answer : D

26. Which statement is false concerning capacitation of spermatozoa?
A. occurs after acrosome reaction
B. entails removal of a glycoprotein layer
C. it is a biochemical event of sperm maturation
D. changes occur in the female genital tract
Answer : A

27. Which area in the nervous system is tested by bulbocavernosus reflex?
A. brain stem
B. C2 C4
C. S2 - S4
D. L2 - L4
Answer : C

28. Which drug does NOT result in urinary retention?
A. terazosin, antihypertensive
B. benzodiazepines, psychotropic medicine
C. levodopa, anti-Parkinsonism medicine
D. brimonidine, glaucoma eye drops
Answer : A

29. In which organelle in Leydig cell does testosterone synthesis take place?
A. ribosome
B. mitochondria
C. Golgi apparatus
D. endoplasmic reticulum
Answer : D

30. Which disease is described best by the following manifestations: grand mal epilepsy, mental retardation, hypertension, angiomyolipoma, adenoma sebaceum, bilateral enlarged kidneys, and normal renal function?
A. autosomal dominant polycystic kidney disease
B. von Hippel-Lindau disease
C. tuberous sclerosis
D. Sturge-Webber syndrome
Answer : C

31. Which statement is true about the female urethra?
A. harder to catheterize when compared to the male urethra
B. 4 inch long
C. opens into the vestibule below the clitoris
D. gets wider at the post-menopausal age
Answer : C

32. What is the prime effect of antidiuretic hormone on kidneys?
A. increase collecting duct permeability
B. increase medullary blood flow
C. decrease cortical blood flow
D. decrease potassium secretion
Answer : A

33. Which microbe causes red diaper syndrome?
A. Serratia marcescens
B. Streptococcus pyogenes
C. Clostridium difficile
D. Staphylococcus saprophyticus
Answer : A

34. Which structure is a part of the renal hilum?
A. renal pelvis
B. branches of the renal artery
C. tributaries of renal vein
D. all of the above
Answer : D

35. Which innervations mediate detumescence?
A. cavernous nerves
B. dorsal nerves of the penis
C. sympathetic nervous system
D. parasympathetic nervous system
Answer : C

36. Which of the following contributes second to the seminal fluid by volume?
A. seminal vesicles
B. the prostate
C. testes
D. bulbourethral glands
Answer : B

37. Which antibiotic is the best to treat soft tissue infection with methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) in hospitalized patients?
A. vancomycin
B. cefotaxime
C. penicillin G
D. tobramycin
Answer : A

38. Where is Santorini plexus located?
A. at either side of the prostate
B. in the pubo-prostatic space
C. anterior to the seminal vesicles
D. posterior to the vaso-epididymal junction
Answer : B

39. Regarding renal ectopia, usually, the adrenals:
A. are cross ectopic
B. are at their normal position
C. travel with the kidneys
D. undergo ischemic atrophy
Answer : B

40. Which artery is NOT a branch of the anterior division of internal iliac artery?
A. superior vesical artery
B. inferior vesical artery
C. superior gluteal artery
D. inferior gluteal artery
Answer : C

41. Which class of the following diuretics could cause erectile dysfunction?
A. loop diuretics
B. thiazide diuretics
C. potassium sparing diuretics
D. osmotic diuretics
Answer : B

42. What is false concerning fosfomycin antibiotic?
A. has a limited cross-resistance with most common antibacterial agents
B. causes injection site reactions
C. is active against most uropathogens
D. is effective as a single-dose agent
Answer : B

43. Which nephron segment contains the most diluted urine in central diabetes insipidus patient?
A. proximal convoluted tubules
B. distal convoluted tubules
C. collecting duct
D. loop of Henle
Answer : C