Related Questions
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4
Assertion A : Airport capacity during IFR conditions is usually less than that during VFR conditions. Reason R: During clear weather condition (VFR), the aircrafts on final approach to runway can be spaced closer during poor visibility conditions. Select your answer based on the coding system given below:
A. Both A and R is true and R is the correct explanation of A
B. Both A and R is true but R is not the correct explanation of A
C. A is true but R is false
D. A is false but R is true
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4
The width and interval of transverse centre line bars along the extended centre line of runway, in approach lighting system are
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4
Conical surface of the approach area rises outwards
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4
The strength of winds is measured with the help of
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4
Maximum gross takeoff weight of an aircraft is
A. Equal to the maximum structural landing weight
B. Less than the maximum structural landing weight
C. More than the maximum structural landing weight
D. Equal to the empty operating weight plus the payload
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4
The thickness design of the pavement, is decided on the load carried by
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4
Which of the following factors are taken into account for estimating the runway length required for aircraft landing?
1. Normal maximum temperature
2. Airport elevation
3. Maximum landing weight
4. Effective runway gradient Select the correct answer using the codes given below Codes:
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4
Pick up the correct statement from the following:
A. The distance between the points of intersection of the extreme tangents to the transition curve is kept greater than 7500 m × sum of grade changes at the point of intersection
B. The rate of change of grade is limited to 0.3% per 30 m length of the curve
C. According to I.C.A.O. the maximum longitudinal gradient along a runway is limited to 1.5%
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4
Pick up the correct statement from the following:
A. Landing speed is directly proportional to the wing loading
B. Wing loading remaining constant, the take off distance is directly proportional to the powder loading
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4
The threshold markings are
B. 1 m clear space between adjacent
C. Placed symmetrically on either side of the runway centre line
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4
From the end of an instrumental runway, the approach surface rises outwards
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4
If the width of the approach area near the runway end is 150 m, the width of the approach area at a distance of 3 kilometres from runway end will be
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4
The bearing of the longest line of a wind rose is S 45° E, the bearing of the runway will be numbered
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4
Castor angle is defined as the angle
A. Formed by the longitudinal axis of the aircraft and the direction of movement of the nose gear
B. Between the direction of wind and the longitudinal axis of the runway
C. Between the true speed of the aircraft and the crosswind component
D. Between the horizontal and the fuselage axis
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4
The distance between main gears is 10 m, and the distance of nose gear from centre of main gears is 30 m. If the angle of turning is 60°, the distance of centre of rotation from the nearer main gear, is
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4
For the proposed air port, the survey project provides
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4
Assertion A: The width of a taxiway is smaller than the runway width. Reason R: The speed of the aircraft on a taxiway is greater than that on runway. Select your answer based on coding system given below
A. Both A and R is true and R is the correct explanation of A
B. Both A and R is true but R is not the correct explanation of A
C. A is true but R is false
D. A is false but R is true
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4
The length of a runway under standard atmospheric conditions is 1800 m. If the actual reduced level of the site is 1200 m, the design length of the runway is
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4
An airport has 4 gates. If the weighted average gate occupancy time is 30 minutes and gate utilisation factor is 0.5, then the capacity of the gate will be
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4
According to I.C.A.O. the slope of transitional surface at right angles to the centre line of runway, is kept
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4
For determining the basic runway length, the landing case requires that aircraft should come to a stop within p % of the landing distance. The value of p is
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4
The reduced level of the proposed site of an air port is 2500 m above M.S.L. If the recommended length by I.C.A.O. for the runway at sea level is 2500 m, the required length of the runway is
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4
Calm period is the percentage of time during which wind intensity is less than
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4
Zero fuel weight of an aircraft is:
A. Equal to empty operating weight
B. Equal to maximum landing weight
C. Less than empty operating weight
D. Equal to sum of empty operating weight and the maximum pay load
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4
The length of runway is increased per 300 m rise above M.S.L.
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4
The lift off distance is the distance along the centre of the runway between the starting point and
C. Point where air craft becomes air borne
D. Point where air craft attains a height of 10.7 m
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4
Which of the following is an example of failure in flexible pavements?
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4
In an airport, if 4 groups of 5 gates each located well separated are considered for traffic and the future to present traffic ratio is 3, then the total requirement of future gates will be
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4
Consider the following statements regarding ICAO recommendation for correction to basic runway length
1. The basic runway length should be increased at the rate of 7 percent per 300 m rise in elevation above the mean sea level.
2. The basic runway length after having been corrected for elevation should be further increased at the rate of 1 percent for every 1°C rise in airport reference temperature above the standard atmospheric temperature at that elevation.
3. The runway length after having been corrected for elevation and temperature should be further increased at the rate of 20% for every 1 percent of effective gradient. Of these statements
D. 1, 2 and 3 are correct
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4
Pick up the incorrect statement from the following:
A. In single engine aeroplanes, the engine is provided in the nose of the aircraft
B. In double engine aeroplanes, one engine on either wing is placed symmetrically
C. In three engine aeroplanes, two engines are placed on both wings and one engine is placed in the tail