A. beaded vas deferens

B. testicular micrilithiasis

C. testicular atrophy

D. epididymal granuloma

A. pelvic inflammatory disease

B. lymphogranuloma venereum

C. infertility

D. all of the above

A. aminopenicillins

B. fluoroquinolones

C. aminoglycosides

D. nitrofurantoins

A. urethral infection with trichomonas vaginalis

B. bladder infection with adenovirus

C. Kawasakis disease

D. all of the above

A. any amount of uropathogen grown in culture indicates UTI

B. for cystitis, more than 1000 CFU/mL indicates UTI

C. for pyelonephritis, more than 10,000 CFU/mL indicates UTI

D. for asymptomatic bacteriuria, more than 100,000 CFU/mL indicates UTI

A. testicular

B. renal

C. penile

D. all of the above

A. foreign-body cystitis due to vesical calculi

B. Von Brunn`s nests of cystitis cystica and cystitis glandularis

C. schistosomiasis cystitis

D. inverted papilloma of the bladder

A. kidneys and adrenals

B. bladder and ureters

C. prostate and vasa

D. testes and epididymi

A. advanced age

B. anatomical anomalies

C. poor drug compliance

D. smoking

A. should be flushed frequently, but no antibiotic is advised

B. should be treated if febrile UTI has developed

C. should be treated only if urine culture is positive

D. should be treated once the catheter is removed

A. an esinophilic immune reaction is generated in response to the eggs

B. chronic schistosomiasis can eventually result in small bladder and the development of cancers

C. schistosoma mansoni often causes urinary tract infections

D. could cause inflammatory polys and recurrent hematuria

A. natural sloughing of bladder mucosa

B. voiding

C. urine osmolarity

D. urine pH

A. is a self-limiting infection where antibiotics are not required

B. is exclusively for UTI experienced by a girl after sexual intercourse on her wedding night

C. post-coital voiding has no value in the occurrence of the infection

D. self-initiated medication helps control the infection

A. ascending UTI causing acute lobar nephronia

B. acute pyelonephritis in a transplanted kidney

C. infected renal subcapsular hematoma

D. perinephric abscess causing septicemia

A. commonly presents with scrotal pain, swelling, fever, and leucocytosis

B. epididymo-orchitis is the most frequent genitourinary complication of brucellosis

C. epididymo-orchitis occurs in 10-15% of male patients with brucellosis

D. treatment includes doxycycline and rifampicin for 6-8 weeks

A. trimethoprim- sulfamethoxazole

B. fluoroquinolones

C. aminoglycosides

D. nitrofurantoins

A. von Hippel-Lindau disease

B. tuberous sclerosis

C. cystic fibrosis

D. autosomal dominant polycystic kidney disease

A. minimal

B. chronic persistent infections

C. chronic relapsing infections

D. bouts of chronic pyelonephritis

A. tuberculous ulcer

B. malignant ulcer

C. gummatous ulcers

D. traumatic ulcer

A. probably due to antibody/antigen reaction

B. has no diagnostic findings on cystoscopy

C. has no specific medical therapy

D. on histology, Von Brunn`s nests appear invaginating the urothelium into the lamina propria

A. most cysts appear as filling defects on cystography

B. most often found in the trigone area

C. the cyst lumens contain esinophilic secretions that may have a few inflammatory cells

D. cystitis cystica and cystitis glandularis are reactive urothelial changes

A. condom catheters carry less risk of UTI if compared to urethral

B. suprapubic catheters carry less risk of UTI if compared to urethral

C. latex catheters carry less risk of UTI if compared to silicon

D. intermittent catheterization carry less risk of UTI if compared to indwelling catheters

A. is most commonly associated with Proteus or E. coli infection

B. is characterized by lipid-laden foamy macrophages

C. the overall prognosis is poor

D. it might involve adjacent structures or organs

A. is always asymptomatic

B. it shows a serological immune antibody response

C. is a common cause of sterile pyuria

D. typically, at this stage, the body demonstrates bacteriuria

A. characterized by neurovirulence

B. the incubation period of primary genital herpes is 2 3 weeks

C. HSV can be isolated in the urine

D. HSV-1 infection causes urethritis more often than HSV-2 does

A. sulfonamide for several months

B. TUR of the bladder lesion followed by proper staging

C. radical cystectomy and urinary diversion

D. intravesical installation of mitomycin without irradiation

A. abscess appears as a low attenuation cystic cavity containing gas

B. renal parenchyma around the abscess cavity may show hypo enhancement in nephrogram phase

C. associated fascial and septal thickening are seen with obliteration of perinephric fat

D. all of the above

A. small indirect inguinal hernia may irritate the genital branch of genitofemoral nerve causing orchialgia

B. might respond to a selective nerve block

C. the recommended treatment is orchiectomy with implantation of a testicular prosthesis

D. psychotherapy and stress management might alleviate the pain

A. dirty - infected

B. contaminated

C. clean - contaminated

D. clean

A. clinically, cannot be differentiated from acute bacterial prostatitis

B. medical management is often unsuccessful

C. it harbors prostate cancer in approximately 4.3% of cases

D. management include suprapubic urinary diversion

A. giant staghorn stone

B. perivesical abscess with fistula to the bladder

C. bacterial resistance

D. self-inflicted infection