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4

Which of the following does NOT cause unresolved bacteriuria?

A. giant staghorn stone

B. perivesical abscess with fistula to the bladder

C. bacterial resistance

D. self-inflicted infection

Correct Answer :

B. perivesical abscess with fistula to the bladder


perivesical abscess with fistula to bladder causes bacterial persistence rather than unresolved bacteriuria.

Related Questions

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4

What is true concerning ovarian vein syndrome?

A. manifests as recurrent renal colics due to ureteral obstruction

B. treatment is surgical mobilization of ureter and ligation of the vein

C. commonly, occurs at the left side

D. the pain worsens on sitting upright and during pregnancy

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4

What is false regarding schistosomal cystitis?

A. an esinophilic immune reaction is generated in response to the eggs

B. chronic schistosomiasis can eventually result in small bladder and the development of cancers

C. schistosoma mansoni often causes urinary tract infections

D. could cause inflammatory polys and recurrent hematuria

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4

What is the least important measure in indwelling catheter care?

A. cleansing the urethral meatus with aseptic agent

B. careful aseptic insertion of the catheter

C. maintenance of a closed drainage system

D. maintaining a dependant drainage system

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4

What type of bladder cells secretes antiproliferative factor?

A. bladder epithelial cells

B. type C nerve endings in the bladder

C. type A delta nerve endings in the bladder

D. the innermost longitudinal fibres of detrusor muscle

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4

Which treatment modality has NO proven efficacy in CP/CPPS?

A. selective nerve block

B. balloon dilation

C. botulinum A toxin injection

D. ESWL

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4

What is false concerning the cystoscopic findings of interstitial cystitis?

A. Hunner`s ulcers are multiple ulcerative patches surrounded by mucosal congestion on the dome or lateral walls

B. ulcers might get distorted after overdistention, because discrete areas of mucosal scarring rupture during the procedure

C. in non-ulcerative type, overdistention demonstrates glomerulations on the dome and lateral walls

D. overdistention results in mucosal tears and submucosal hemorrhage

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4

What is (are) the cause(s) of recurrent community acquired UTI in women?

A. uncontrolled DM

B. sexual activity with multiple partners

C. high vaginal receptivity to bacterial adherence

D. all of the above

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4

What could NOT cause recurrent UTI in a 25 yrs. woman?

A. bladder neck suspension surgery

B. chronic constipation

C. poor genital hygiene

D. contraceptive diaphragm

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4

What type of cells is implicated most in the pathogenesis of BPS/IC?

A. histocytes

B. T lymphocytes

C. mast cells

D. B lymphocytes

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4

What could cause unresolved bacteriuria?

A. drug resistance

B. non-compliance

C. the presence of persistent pathology

D. all of the above

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4

What is the most virulent factor for bacterial adherence?

A. P blood group

B. fimbria

C. pili

D. hemolysin

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4

What is true concerning scrotal abscesses?

A. could be a complication of chronic epididymitis and orchalgia

B. testicular torsion must be excluded

C. infected hair follicles and scrotal lacerations are predisposing factors

D. urethral discharge is not uncommon presentation

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4

What is true concerning granulomatous inflammation of the prostate?

A. is a common cause of elevated PSA level

B. might follow BCG treatment

C. is sequelae of untreated type III-b prostatitis

D. shows homogenous enhancement following Gd-DTPA on prostate MRI

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4

What is the most common serotype of HPV associated with squamous cell carcinoma of the penis?

A. 16

B. 18

C. 22

D. 12

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4

What is false concerning acute glomerulonephritis?

A. manifested as a sudden onset of hematuria, proteinuria, oliguria, edema, hypertension, and RBC casts in the urine

B. post-streptococcus GN has an incubation period of 1-3 weeks with specific strains of group A beta-hemolytic streptococcus

C. the triad of sinusitis, pulmonary infiltrates, and nephritis, suggests Wegener granulomatosis

D. C3, C4, ESR and antistreptolysin O titer are increased

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4

A 40 yrs. man presents with clinical acute pyelonephritis, on intravenous antibiotics for 4 days, CT shows a renal abscess. What is next in the treatment?

A. carry on the full antibiotic course, and then repeat CT

B. incision and drainage of the renal abscess with/without nephrectomy

C. the abscess size dictates management

D. perc. drainage of the renal abscess

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4

Histologically, the pathognomonic finding of Fournier gangrene include:

A. necrosis of the superficial and deep fascial planes

B. fibrinoid thrombosis of the nutrient arterioles

C. polymorphonuclear cell infiltration

D. all of the above

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4

What could cause scrotal sinus?

A. improperly drained hair follicle scrotal abscess

B. syphilitic orchitis

C. tuberculous epididymitis

D. all of the above

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4

A 48 yrs. woman presents with recurrent cystitis. Cystoscopy showed a raised bladder lesion. Biopsies from the lesion reveals Von Hansemann histiocytes, and Michaelis-Gutmann bodies. What is the treatment?

A. sulfonamide for several months

B. TUR of the bladder lesion followed by proper staging

C. radical cystectomy and urinary diversion

D. intravesical installation of mitomycin without irradiation

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4

What is true concerning the treatment of catheter associated bacteriuria?

A. should be flushed frequently, but no antibiotic is advised

B. should be treated if febrile UTI has developed

C. should be treated only if urine culture is positive

D. should be treated once the catheter is removed

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4

What is the most significant complication of papillary necrosis?

A. ureteral obstruction

B. proteinuria

C. stone formation

D. renal scarring

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4

How should a proper routine urine specimen be collected?

A. early morning sample, after cleansing the perineum and meatus

B. by urethral catheterization under strict aseptic technique

C. a clean catch of midstream voided urine

D. by suprapubic aspiration, as urine is sterile

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4

What are the most commonly affected organs by genitourinary tuberculosis?

A. kidneys, prostate and epididymi

B. bladder, ureters and renal pelvis

C. vasa, scrotum and adrenals

D. testes, bladder neck and seminal vesicles

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4

What is false concerning Chlamydia trachomatis urethritis in males:

A. produces yellow whitish, scanty, frothy urethral discharge

B. shows gram (+), extracellular diplococcic

C. infection could be contracted from the spouses eyes

D. responds fairly to azithromycin

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4

What is false regarding malakoplakia?

A. is an uncommon granulomatous disease that affect the skin and/or urinary bladder

B. it might be due to a disturbed function of B lymphocytes

C. characterized by the presence of basophilic inclusion structure (Michaelis-Gutmann body)

D. it might be due to a defective phagolysosomal activity of monocytes or macrophages

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4

Screening for bacteriuria is mostly indicated for:

A. seniors house residents

B. ICU patients with indwelling urinary catheters

C. pregnant women

D. neurogenic bladder patients on CIC

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4

In males, HIV infection increases the incidence of the following genitourinary tumors:

A. testicular

B. renal

C. penile

D. all of the above

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4

What is false regarding Herpes simplex (HSV) infection?

A. characterized by neurovirulence

B. the incubation period of primary genital herpes is 2 3 weeks

C. HSV can be isolated in the urine

D. HSV-1 infection causes urethritis more often than HSV-2 does

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4

What is the estimated risk of untreated Chlamydial infections in producing pelvic inflammatory disease?

A. 1 2.7%

B. 5 9%

C. 10 27%

D. 30 47%

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4

What is the proper term to describe high bacterial count in urine without pus?

A. asymptomatic bacteriuria

B. sterile pyouria

C. bacterial colonization

D. unresolved bacteriuria