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4

What is (are) the complication(s) of sexually transmitted infections?

A. pelvic inflammatory disease

B. lymphogranuloma venereum

C. infertility

D. all of the above

Correct Answer :

D. all of the above


self-explanatory.

Related Questions

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4

How should a proper routine urine specimen be collected?

A. early morning sample, after cleansing the perineum and meatus

B. by urethral catheterization under strict aseptic technique

C. a clean catch of midstream voided urine

D. by suprapubic aspiration, as urine is sterile

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4

A 44 yrs. male presents with recurrent left pyelonephritis and Proteus infection. His kidney is dilated and contains a stone. A renal biopsy showed foamy macrophages with neutrophils and cellular debris. What is the treatment?

A. PCNL after treating the infection

B. cystoscopy and placing a retrograde ureteral stent followed by ESWL

C. perc. nephrostomy and placing antegrade ureteral stent

D. nephrectomy

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4

What is false regarding urethral syndrome in postmenopausal women?

A. pH of vaginal secretions increases after menopause

B. estrogen deficiency manifests as trophic urethritis and atrophic vaginitis

C. topical conjugated estrogen replacement carries a significant risk of breast and endometrial cancers

D. manifestations might include obstructive symptoms and non-infectious cystitis

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4

Why could pyuria be sterile?

A. because standard laboratory culture specifications might not be favorable for growth of atypical organisms

B. because UTI could show fewer than 10 white cells/mm3 in urine

C. because laboratories may not report significant growth of a defined urinary pathogen

D. all of the above

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4

What is false concerning urinary catheter-associated UTI (CAUTI)?

A. once a catheter is placed, the daily incidence of bacteriuria is 3-10%

B. on long-term catheterization, over 90% of patients develop bacteriuria

C. the practice of using urinary catheters to control incontinence in bedridden patients should be discouraged

D. urine bags should be placed on the floor to enhance gravity drainage

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4

What group of patients should be treated for UTI only when symptomatic?

A. patients with indwelling catheters

B. neurogenic bladder patients on CIC

C. pregnant women

D. children under 5 years

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4

What is the average age of onset of BPS/IC patients?

A. 30

B. 40

C. 50

D. 60

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4

What is false concerning the cystoscopic findings of interstitial cystitis?

A. Hunner`s ulcers are multiple ulcerative patches surrounded by mucosal congestion on the dome or lateral walls

B. ulcers might get distorted after overdistention, because discrete areas of mucosal scarring rupture during the procedure

C. in non-ulcerative type, overdistention demonstrates glomerulations on the dome and lateral walls

D. overdistention results in mucosal tears and submucosal hemorrhage

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4

What is true regarding nephrogenic adenoma of the bladder?

A. results from ectopic nephrogenic blastema cells in the detrusor muscle

B. might undergo malignant transformation in 15 40% of the cases

C. on cystoscopy, it appears as a bladder mucosal irregularity or large intramural mass

D. the preferred treatment is cystectomy and urinary diversion

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4

What is the preferred antibiotic for BPS/IC cases?

A. rifampicin

B. doxycycline

C. azithromycin

D. none of the above

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4

Under which surgical wound classification, does diagnostic cystoscopy under sterile technique fit?

A. dirty - infected

B. contaminated

C. clean - contaminated

D. clean

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4

Which of the following factors increases the risk of UTI due to facilitation of microbial ascent?

A. sexual activity

B. the use of spermicide

C. estrogen depletion

D. fecal incontinence

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4

What condition(s) could occur in schistosomal ureter?

A. beading of the lower ureteral segment

B. ureteral fibrosis and calcifications of the distal ureter

C. stricture at the uretero-vesical junction

D. all of the above

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4

What is the least important measure in indwelling catheter care?

A. cleansing the urethral meatus with aseptic agent

B. careful aseptic insertion of the catheter

C. maintenance of a closed drainage system

D. maintaining a dependant drainage system

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4

What is (are) the complication(s) of sexually transmitted infections?

A. pelvic inflammatory disease

B. lymphogranuloma venereum

C. infertility

D. all of the above

What is the correct answer?

4

What is false regarding Fournier`s gangrene?

A. is defined as a polymicrobial chronic infection of the perineal, perianal, or genital areas

B. as the disease progresses, branches from the inferior epigastric, deep circumflex iliac, and external pudendal arteries get thrombosed

C. presents as a dark skinned-scrotum, subcutaneous crepitation, and foul smell

D. surgical debridement often spares the testes

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4

Which of the following is NOT a first-choice antimicrobial agent for uncomplicated acute cystitis in women?

A. nitrofurantoin monohydrate/macrocrystals

B. trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole

C. ampicillin

D. fosfomycin

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4

What could NOT cause recurrent UTI in a 25 yrs. woman?

A. bladder neck suspension surgery

B. chronic constipation

C. poor genital hygiene

D. contraceptive diaphragm

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4

What virus(s) could cause orchitis?

A. Coxsackie B

B. Epstein-Barr

C. varicella

D. all of the above

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4

What is the most commonly affected organ by genitourinary Brucellosis?

A. kidneys

B. bladder

C. prostate

D. epididymis

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4

When comparing nosocomial to community-acquired UTI, the latter is:

A. 45% are caused by E. coli

B. related to an indwelling urinary catheter in approximately 40% of cases

C. responds fairly to oral antibiotics

D. tends to report higher antibiotic resistance

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4

What type of human Herpes virus is implicated in all forms of Kaposi sarcoma?

A. 2

B. 6

C. 7

D. 8

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4

A 40 yrs. man presents with clinical acute pyelonephritis, on intravenous antibiotics for 4 days, CT shows a renal abscess. What is next in the treatment?

A. carry on the full antibiotic course, and then repeat CT

B. incision and drainage of the renal abscess with/without nephrectomy

C. the abscess size dictates management

D. perc. drainage of the renal abscess

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4

What is false concerning Brucellosis epididymitis?

A. commonly presents with scrotal pain, swelling, fever, and leucocytosis

B. epididymo-orchitis is the most frequent genitourinary complication of brucellosis

C. epididymo-orchitis occurs in 10-15% of male patients with brucellosis

D. treatment includes doxycycline and rifampicin for 6-8 weeks

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4

What is false regarding cystitis cystica?

A. most cysts appear as filling defects on cystography

B. most often found in the trigone area

C. the cyst lumens contain esinophilic secretions that may have a few inflammatory cells

D. cystitis cystica and cystitis glandularis are reactive urothelial changes

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4

What is the percentage of occurrence of Staphylococcus saprophyticus in symptomatic lower UTIs in young sexually active females?

A. 5%

B. 10%

C. 15%

D. 20%

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4

What is true regarding urinary catheter-associated UTI (CAUTI)?

A. indwelling catheter insertion must be under sterile condition

B. systemic antibiotics help best in preventing bacteriuria

C. greater than 90% of nosocomial UTIs are related to urethral catheters

D. Intermittent catheterization carries the incidence of 1-3% of developing bacteriuria per insertion

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4

What is false regarding viral cystitis?

A. in pediatrics, adenovirus types 11 and 21 could result in hemorrhagic cystitis

B. immunosuppressed children are especially susceptible to Cytomegalovirus and Adenoviruses 7, 21, and 35

C. in pediatrics, acute viral cystitis might present as acute retention of urine

D. classically, treatment should be culture-specific

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4

What is true concerning malakoplakia?

A. is a premalignant condition

B. it can be locally aggressive and invades surrounding structures causing bone erosions

C. kidneys are the most commonly affected organs

D. characterized by rounded intracellular inclusions (owls-eyes) in large esinophilic histocytes

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4

What is the most virulent factor for bacterial adherence?

A. P blood group

B. fimbria

C. pili

D. hemolysin