A. testicular

B. renal

C. penile

D. all of the above

A. might rupture into the collecting system causing (hydatiduria)and renal colic

B. are formed by the eggs of the tapeworm Echinococcus granulosus

C. most cysts are asymptomatic but might manifest as flank mass, dull pain, or hematuria

D. the most reliable diagnostic test uses partially purified hydatid arc 5 antigens in a double-diffusion test

A. bladder neck suspension surgery

B. chronic constipation

C. poor genital hygiene

D. contraceptive diaphragm

A. allergic, type I hypersensitivity response

B. pelvic floor dysfunction

C. up-regulation of histaminergic and muscarinic neuro-receptors

D. neural hypersensitivity

A. is a premalignant condition

B. it can be locally aggressive and invades surrounding structures causing bone erosions

C. kidneys are the most commonly affected organs

D. characterized by rounded intracellular inclusions (owls-eyes) in large esinophilic histocytes

A. pelvic inflammatory disease

B. lymphogranuloma venereum

C. infertility

D. all of the above

A. nitrofurantoin monohydrate/macrocrystals

B. trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole

C. ampicillin

D. fosfomycin

A. could be a complication of chronic epididymitis and orchalgia

B. testicular torsion must be excluded

C. infected hair follicles and scrotal lacerations are predisposing factors

D. urethral discharge is not uncommon presentation

A. N. gonorrhea and C. trachomatis

B. E. coli and Pseudomonas species

C. Mycoplasma genitalium and Ureaplasma species

D. Trichomonas vaginalis and Gardnerella vaginalis

A. type I could harbor prostate abscess

B. type II presents as intermittent urinary tract infections

C. type III-a presentation might include psychological complaints

D. between 10-15% of men with type IV, have pus cells in their semen but no symptoms

A. poor tissue perfusion manifests as hyperlactemia and decreased capillary refill

B. acute oliguria indicates an organ dysfunction and circulatory collapse

C. septic shock is an extreme form of sepsis when hypotension persists despite adequate fluid resuscitation

D. hypotension is a sign of hyperdynamic circulation at an early septic shock

A. testicular

B. renal

C. penile

D. all of the above

A. seniors house residents

B. ICU patients with indwelling urinary catheters

C. pregnant women

D. neurogenic bladder patients on CIC

A. greater than 8 fold

B. greater than 6 fold

C. greater than 4 fold

D. comparable

A. PCNL after treating the infection

B. cystoscopy and placing a retrograde ureteral stent followed by ESWL

C. perc. nephrostomy and placing antegrade ureteral stent

D. nephrectomy

A. CT shows the characteristic bear paw sign

B. it is an infected, obstructed, poorly functioning kidney containing stones

C. nephrectomy is the treatment

D. all of the above

A. the hallmark in the diagnosis is the cystoscopic findings

B. risk factors include transplant recipients

C. CT shows intramural and/or intraluminal gas in the bladder

D. requires surgical debridement and probably cystectomy

A. is an uncommon granulomatous disease that affect the skin and/or urinary bladder

B. it might be due to a disturbed function of B lymphocytes

C. characterized by the presence of basophilic inclusion structure (Michaelis-Gutmann body)

D. it might be due to a defective phagolysosomal activity of monocytes or macrophages

A. should be distinguished from testicular torsion in the emergency setting

B. viral epididymitis is commoner in the elderly

C. chronic epididymitis might complicate BPH

D. chronic epididymitis might require epididymectomy

A. the incidence of scarring following a single episode of febrile UTI is 4.5%

B. intra-renal reflux is common in convex papillae

C. scarring and chronic pyelonephritis lead to hypertension in 10-20%

D. scarring is best detected and followed up by DMSA

A. asymptomatic bacteriuria

B. sterile pyouria

C. bacterial colonization

D. unresolved bacteriuria

A. TUR ejaculatory duct

B. prolonged urethral catheterization

C. prostatic biopsy

D. vas ligation

A. sterile pyuria on 3 consecutive cultures

B. the presence of glomerulations and/or Hunner`s ulcer on endoscopy

C. pain and discomfort related to the bladder

D. urgency and frequency with no documented infection

A. pH of vaginal secretions increases after menopause

B. estrogen deficiency manifests as trophic urethritis and atrophic vaginitis

C. topical conjugated estrogen replacement carries a significant risk of breast and endometrial cancers

D. manifestations might include obstructive symptoms and non-infectious cystitis

A. bladder epithelial cells

B. type C nerve endings in the bladder

C. type A delta nerve endings in the bladder

D. the innermost longitudinal fibres of detrusor muscle

A. 16

B. 18

C. 22

D. 12

A. phagocytes

B. CD4 T cells

C. B lymphocytes

D. natural killer cells

A. it is a constant or intermittent pain of testes for more than 3 months

B. could be due to appendix testis torsion-detorsion

C. could be due to radiculitis resulting from a degenerative lesion in the thoraco-lumber vertebrae

D. could be a result of entrapment neuropathy of ilioinguinal or genitofemoral nerve

A. is most commonly associated with Proteus or E. coli infection

B. is characterized by lipid-laden foamy macrophages

C. the overall prognosis is poor

D. it might involve adjacent structures or organs

A. uncontrolled DM

B. sexual activity with multiple partners

C. high vaginal receptivity to bacterial adherence

D. all of the above

A. the onset of symptoms is insidious

B. the lesion has no proven relation to bladder cancer

C. if left untreated, the bladder will turn small, contracted, with submucosal calcifications

D. a single positive urine culture refutes the diagnosis