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4

What is true concerning the treatment of catheter associated bacteriuria?

A. should be flushed frequently, but no antibiotic is advised

B. should be treated if febrile UTI has developed

C. should be treated only if urine culture is positive

D. should be treated once the catheter is removed

Correct Answer :

B. should be treated if febrile UTI has developed


treatment of catheter-associated bacteriuria is indicated only if fever and chills has developed.

Related Questions

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4

Management of acute epididymo-orchitis in hospitalized patients includes all of the following, EXCEPT:

A. scrotal support and elevation

B. ice packs

C. non-steroidal anti-inflammatory agents

D. urethral catheterization

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4

In males, HIV infection increases the incidence of the following genitourinary tumors:

A. testicular

B. renal

C. penile

D. all of the above

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4

What is true regarding nephrogenic adenoma of the bladder?

A. results from ectopic nephrogenic blastema cells in the detrusor muscle

B. might undergo malignant transformation in 15 40% of the cases

C. on cystoscopy, it appears as a bladder mucosal irregularity or large intramural mass

D. the preferred treatment is cystectomy and urinary diversion

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4

What is NOT a poor clinical practice on caring for urethral catheters?

A. taking urine samples by draining the urine bag

B. daily cleansing the external meatus

C. placing the urine bag on the floor

D. changing the urine bag once it is full

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4

The relative risk of prostate cancer in men with HIV compared to uninfected individuals is:

A. greater than 8 fold

B. greater than 6 fold

C. greater than 4 fold

D. comparable

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4

What is true concerning BPS/IC?

A. the onset of symptoms is insidious

B. the lesion has no proven relation to bladder cancer

C. if left untreated, the bladder will turn small, contracted, with submucosal calcifications

D. a single positive urine culture refutes the diagnosis

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4

What is false in the treatment and prevention of STDs?

A. antibiotic therapy is recommended for affected individuals with documented trichomonal infection and sexual partners even if asymptomatic

B. empirical treatment for gonococcal urethritis should cover chlamydia trachomatis

C. consistent and proper usage of condoms is estimated to prevent HIV transmission by approximately 80 to 95%

D. vaccinations are available for the prevention of human papillomavirus, N. gonorrhea, chlamydia trachomatis

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4

What is false concerning radiation cystitis?

A. the average time from the beginning of radiation therapy to initial symptoms could be 2 4 weeks

B. treatment with stationary radiation, portals carry a higher risk of morbidity than treatment with rotating portals do

C. it occurs in about 10% of patients treated with definitive irradiation therapy for prostate cancer after 10 years

D. most cases are mildly affected and require no specific therapy

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4

UPOINT system for phenotype categorization:

A. categorizes CP-CPPS, IC, and painful bladder syndrome based on 5 etiological principles

B. meant to classify CP-CPPS and IC patients into 6 domains

C. helps establish a reliable diagnosis of CP/CPPS or IC

D. the diagnostic scores of UPOINT depend on cystoscopy, TRUS, urine analysis and culture of uncommon microbes

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4

Irritative LUTS and dyspareunia in postmenopausal women are most likely to be due to:

A. giggle incontinence

B. estrogen deficiency

C. cystitis glandularis

D. cystitis cystica

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4

What is the preferred antimicrobial prophylaxis for transrectal prostate biopsy?

A. aminoglycoside

B. fluoroquinolone

C. 2nd generation cephalosporin

D. doxycycline

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4

What is false regarding Gonorrheal STD in women?

A. nucleic acid amplification tests are the preferred to diagnose Gonococcal and Chlamydial infections

B. shows dark yellow, purulent, thick urethral discharge

C. the most common site of the infection is the endocervix

D. the incubation period is 2 3 weeks

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4

What is the least important measure in indwelling catheter care?

A. cleansing the urethral meatus with aseptic agent

B. careful aseptic insertion of the catheter

C. maintenance of a closed drainage system

D. maintaining a dependant drainage system

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4

What is false regarding pediatric renal parenchyma scarring?

A. chronic pyelonephritis and HTN lead to ESRD in 10% of the cases

B. neonatal symptoms of UTI are vague and non-specific, that delay the diagnosis and end in more scarring

C. despite adequate treatment, scarring continues after an attack of pyelonephritis as a chronic immune reaction against renal tubules

D. neonates have low intrarenal pelvic pressure, that predisposes to ascending infections

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4

Which of the following has NO role in bacterial colonization in the prostate?

A. intra-prostatic ductal reflux

B. paraphimosis

C. specific blood groups

D. unprotected anal intercourse

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4

Asymptomatic bacteriuria should be treated in the following situations:

A. in the elderly

B. in long-term catheterized patient

C. in pregnancy

D. none of the above

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4

What host`s factors do NOT increase the risk of developing infections?

A. advanced age

B. anatomical anomalies

C. poor drug compliance

D. smoking

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4

What is the estimated risk of untreated Chlamydial infections in producing pelvic inflammatory disease?

A. 1 2.7%

B. 5 9%

C. 10 27%

D. 30 47%

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4

What is the earliest clinical finding of urosepsis?

A. elevated body temperature

B. dropped blood pressure

C. elevated heart rate

D. reduced urine output

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4

Histologically, the pathognomonic finding of Fournier gangrene include:

A. necrosis of the superficial and deep fascial planes

B. fibrinoid thrombosis of the nutrient arterioles

C. polymorphonuclear cell infiltration

D. all of the above

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4

A 44 yrs. male presents with recurrent left pyelonephritis and Proteus infection. His kidney is dilated and contains a stone. A renal biopsy showed foamy macrophages with neutrophils and cellular debris. What is the treatment?

A. PCNL after treating the infection

B. cystoscopy and placing a retrograde ureteral stent followed by ESWL

C. perc. nephrostomy and placing antegrade ureteral stent

D. nephrectomy

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4

What is true regarding urinary catheter-associated UTI (CAUTI)?

A. indwelling catheter insertion must be under sterile condition

B. systemic antibiotics help best in preventing bacteriuria

C. greater than 90% of nosocomial UTIs are related to urethral catheters

D. Intermittent catheterization carries the incidence of 1-3% of developing bacteriuria per insertion

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4

What could cause unresolved bacteriuria?

A. drug resistance

B. non-compliance

C. the presence of persistent pathology

D. all of the above

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4

What is the ideal antibiotic class for self-start therapy on treating recurrent cystitis in a 32 yrs. married woman?

A. aminopenicillins

B. fluoroquinolones

C. aminoglycosides

D. nitrofurantoins

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4

Which of the following conditions does NOT cause bacterial persistence?

A. perivesical abscess with fistula to bladder

B. acute tubular necrosis

C. renal papillary necrosis

D. xanthogranulomatous pyelonephritis

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4

What is the commonest intra-scrotal pathology in AIDS patients?

A. beaded vas deferens

B. testicular micrilithiasis

C. testicular atrophy

D. epididymal granuloma

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4

What is (are) the cause(s) of recurrent community acquired UTI in women?

A. uncontrolled DM

B. sexual activity with multiple partners

C. high vaginal receptivity to bacterial adherence

D. all of the above

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4

What is true concerning bacterial colonization in the bladder?

A. is always asymptomatic

B. it shows a serological immune antibody response

C. is a common cause of sterile pyuria

D. typically, at this stage, the body demonstrates bacteriuria

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4

What is the average age of onset of BPS/IC patients?

A. 30

B. 40

C. 50

D. 60

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4

What condition(s) could occur in schistosomal ureter?

A. beading of the lower ureteral segment

B. ureteral fibrosis and calcifications of the distal ureter

C. stricture at the uretero-vesical junction

D. all of the above