A. clinically, cannot be differentiated from acute bacterial prostatitis

B. medical management is often unsuccessful

C. it harbors prostate cancer in approximately 4.3% of cases

D. management include suprapubic urinary diversion

A. antibiotic therapy is recommended for affected individuals with documented trichomonal infection and sexual partners even if asymptomatic

B. empirical treatment for gonococcal urethritis should cover chlamydia trachomatis

C. consistent and proper usage of condoms is estimated to prevent HIV transmission by approximately 80 to 95%

D. vaccinations are available for the prevention of human papillomavirus, N. gonorrhea, chlamydia trachomatis

A. 5%

B. 10%

C. 15%

D. 20%

A. tuberculous ulcer

B. malignant ulcer

C. gummatous ulcers

D. traumatic ulcer

A. abscess appears as a low attenuation cystic cavity containing gas

B. renal parenchyma around the abscess cavity may show hypo enhancement in nephrogram phase

C. associated fascial and septal thickening are seen with obliteration of perinephric fat

D. all of the above

A. characterized by neurovirulence

B. the incubation period of primary genital herpes is 2 3 weeks

C. HSV can be isolated in the urine

D. HSV-1 infection causes urethritis more often than HSV-2 does

A. improperly drained hair follicle scrotal abscess

B. syphilitic orchitis

C. tuberculous epididymitis

D. all of the above

A. kidneys, prostate and epididymi

B. bladder, ureters and renal pelvis

C. vasa, scrotum and adrenals

D. testes, bladder neck and seminal vesicles

A. sexual activity

B. the use of spermicide

C. estrogen depletion

D. fecal incontinence

A. bladder neck suspension surgery

B. chronic constipation

C. poor genital hygiene

D. contraceptive diaphragm

A. 30

B. 40

C. 50

D. 60

A. is a self-limiting infection where antibiotics are not required

B. is exclusively for UTI experienced by a girl after sexual intercourse on her wedding night

C. post-coital voiding has no value in the occurrence of the infection

D. self-initiated medication helps control the infection

A. is a common cause of elevated PSA level

B. might follow BCG treatment

C. is sequelae of untreated type III-b prostatitis

D. shows homogenous enhancement following Gd-DTPA on prostate MRI

A. giant staghorn stone

B. perivesical abscess with fistula to the bladder

C. bacterial resistance

D. self-inflicted infection

A. in pediatrics, adenovirus types 11 and 21 could result in hemorrhagic cystitis

B. immunosuppressed children are especially susceptible to Cytomegalovirus and Adenoviruses 7, 21, and 35

C. in pediatrics, acute viral cystitis might present as acute retention of urine

D. classically, treatment should be culture-specific

A. pain is dull aching in the scrotum, perineum, inner thighs, and lower abdomen

B. dysuria, frequency, and/or urgency

C. long-standing (> 6 weeks) history of scrotal pain, and tenderness

D. low grade fever, malaise, and urethral discharge

A. once a catheter is placed, the daily incidence of bacteriuria is 3-10%

B. on long-term catheterization, over 90% of patients develop bacteriuria

C. the practice of using urinary catheters to control incontinence in bedridden patients should be discouraged

D. urine bags should be placed on the floor to enhance gravity drainage

A. is the commonest extra-pulmonary site of infection

B. bladder TB is secondary to renal TB, and usually begins at the ureteral orifices

C. in the kidneys, TB is typically bilateral, cortical, and adjacent to the glomeruli; they may remain dormant for ages

D. epididymal TB might occur by hematogenous or direct spread from the urinary tract

A. patients with indwelling catheters

B. neurogenic bladder patients on CIC

C. pregnant women

D. children under 5 years

A. HIV is a retrovirus that infects B-cells and dendritic cells

B. circumcised men are at lower risk for HIV infection

C. HPV infection increases the risk for cancers in HIV patients by 6.3 times

D. plasma HIV RNA load is a predictor of disease remission

A. type I

B. type II

C. type III

D. type IV

A. dirty - infected

B. contaminated

C. clean - contaminated

D. clean

A. is a premalignant condition

B. it can be locally aggressive and invades surrounding structures causing bone erosions

C. kidneys are the most commonly affected organs

D. characterized by rounded intracellular inclusions (owls-eyes) in large esinophilic histocytes

A. type II

B. type III-a

C. type III-b

D. type IV

A. beading of the lower ureteral segment

B. ureteral fibrosis and calcifications of the distal ureter

C. stricture at the uretero-vesical junction

D. all of the above

A. beaded vas deferens

B. testicular micrilithiasis

C. testicular atrophy

D. epididymal granuloma

A. aminopenicillins

B. fluoroquinolones

C. aminoglycosides

D. nitrofurantoins

A. acute bacterial prostatitis presenting with abscess formation

B. recurrent or refractory chronic bacterial prostatitis

C. asymptomatic prostatitis with pyuria resistant to common antimicrobials

D. curiously, chronic inflammatory prostatitis could respond to low-dose suppressive antibiotic

A. poor tissue perfusion manifests as hyperlactemia and decreased capillary refill

B. acute oliguria indicates an organ dysfunction and circulatory collapse

C. septic shock is an extreme form of sepsis when hypotension persists despite adequate fluid resuscitation

D. hypotension is a sign of hyperdynamic circulation at an early septic shock

A. early morning sample, after cleansing the perineum and meatus

B. by urethral catheterization under strict aseptic technique

C. a clean catch of midstream voided urine

D. by suprapubic aspiration, as urine is sterile

A. CBC reveals leucocytosis with predominance of neutrophils

B. contrast CT reveals one or more focal wedge-like swollen regions of the kidney parenchyma, sparing the cortex, and demonstrating reduced enhancement rim sign

C. in children, recurrent acute pyelonephritis might lead to renal scarring

D. in pregnancy, recurrent acute pyelonephritis might lead to preterm labor