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4

What is true concerning the definition of UTI in women, based on culture results from a suprapubic aspirate of urine?

A. any amount of uropathogen grown in culture indicates UTI

B. for cystitis, more than 1000 CFU/mL indicates UTI

C. for pyelonephritis, more than 10,000 CFU/mL indicates UTI

D. for asymptomatic bacteriuria, more than 100,000 CFU/mL indicates UTI

Correct Answer :

A. any amount of uropathogen grown in culture indicates UTI


as urine in the bladder is supposedly sterile, any amount of uropathogenic grown in culture from a suprapubic aspirate should be considered evidence of a UTI.

Related Questions

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4

What is false regarding cystitis cystica?

A. most cysts appear as filling defects on cystography

B. most often found in the trigone area

C. the cyst lumens contain esinophilic secretions that may have a few inflammatory cells

D. cystitis cystica and cystitis glandularis are reactive urothelial changes

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4

What is false concerning Xanthogranulomatous Pyelonephritis?

A. is most commonly associated with Proteus or E. coli infection

B. is characterized by lipid-laden foamy macrophages

C. the overall prognosis is poor

D. it might involve adjacent structures or organs

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4

What is false regarding Herpes simplex (HSV) infection?

A. characterized by neurovirulence

B. the incubation period of primary genital herpes is 2 3 weeks

C. HSV can be isolated in the urine

D. HSV-1 infection causes urethritis more often than HSV-2 does

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4

Which of the following is NOT a first-choice antimicrobial agent for uncomplicated acute cystitis in women?

A. nitrofurantoin monohydrate/macrocrystals

B. trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole

C. ampicillin

D. fosfomycin

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4

What is true concerning granulomatous inflammation of the prostate?

A. is a common cause of elevated PSA level

B. might follow BCG treatment

C. is sequelae of untreated type III-b prostatitis

D. shows homogenous enhancement following Gd-DTPA on prostate MRI

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4

What is false regarding Fournier`s gangrene?

A. is defined as a polymicrobial chronic infection of the perineal, perianal, or genital areas

B. as the disease progresses, branches from the inferior epigastric, deep circumflex iliac, and external pudendal arteries get thrombosed

C. presents as a dark skinned-scrotum, subcutaneous crepitation, and foul smell

D. surgical debridement often spares the testes

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4

Which of the following conditions does NOT cause bacterial persistence?

A. perivesical abscess with fistula to bladder

B. acute tubular necrosis

C. renal papillary necrosis

D. xanthogranulomatous pyelonephritis

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4

A 60 yrs. man underwent TURP for, only, obstructive LUTS. Histology of prostate chips reveals prostatitis. What NIH type of prostatitis would it be?

A. type I

B. type II

C. type III

D. type IV

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4

Histologically, the pathognomonic finding of Fournier gangrene include:

A. necrosis of the superficial and deep fascial planes

B. fibrinoid thrombosis of the nutrient arterioles

C. polymorphonuclear cell infiltration

D. all of the above

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4

What is false concerning epididymitis?

A. should be distinguished from testicular torsion in the emergency setting

B. viral epididymitis is commoner in the elderly

C. chronic epididymitis might complicate BPH

D. chronic epididymitis might require epididymectomy

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4

What is false about urinary catheters?

A. condom catheters carry less risk of UTI if compared to urethral

B. suprapubic catheters carry less risk of UTI if compared to urethral

C. latex catheters carry less risk of UTI if compared to silicon

D. intermittent catheterization carry less risk of UTI if compared to indwelling catheters

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4

What is the preferred antibiotic for BPS/IC cases?

A. rifampicin

B. doxycycline

C. azithromycin

D. none of the above

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4

Which of the following does NOT cause unresolved bacteriuria?

A. giant staghorn stone

B. perivesical abscess with fistula to the bladder

C. bacterial resistance

D. self-inflicted infection

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4

What is the most commonly affected organ by genitourinary Brucellosis?

A. kidneys

B. bladder

C. prostate

D. epididymis

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4

What could cause unresolved bacteriuria?

A. drug resistance

B. non-compliance

C. the presence of persistent pathology

D. all of the above

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4

Which of the following factors increases the risk of UTI due to promotion of microbial colonization?

A. neurogenic bladder

B. the use of spermicide

C. urinary catheterization

D. fecal incontinence

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4

Irritative LUTS and dyspareunia in postmenopausal women are most likely to be due to:

A. giggle incontinence

B. estrogen deficiency

C. cystitis glandularis

D. cystitis cystica

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4

What is false concerning post UTI renal scarring in pediatrics?

A. the incidence of scarring following a single episode of febrile UTI is 4.5%

B. intra-renal reflux is common in convex papillae

C. scarring and chronic pyelonephritis lead to hypertension in 10-20%

D. scarring is best detected and followed up by DMSA

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4

What is (are) the prominent clinical finding(s) in the diagnosis of acute pyelonephritis?

A. fever, chills, abdominal pain

B. costovertibral angle tenderness

C. hypogastric and loin pain

D. flank pain, dysuria

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4

What is the percentage of occurrence of Staphylococcus saprophyticus in symptomatic lower UTIs in young sexually active females?

A. 5%

B. 10%

C. 15%

D. 20%

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4

Which statement best defines reinfection?

A. a new episode of UTI caused by different species or occurring at long intervals

B. recurrent UTIs caused by the same organism in each instance, classically, at close intervals

C. recurrent UTIs due to failure of medical therapy to eradicate the infection

D. recurrent UTIs due to a persistent pathology that is obstinate to surgery

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4

What is the likelihood of contracting gonorrheal disease following a single intercourse with an infected woman?

A. 1.7%

B. 7%

C. 17%

D. 71%

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4

What is the most virulent factor for bacterial adherence?

A. P blood group

B. fimbria

C. pili

D. hemolysin

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4

When comparing nosocomial to community-acquired UTI, the latter is:

A. 45% are caused by E. coli

B. related to an indwelling urinary catheter in approximately 40% of cases

C. responds fairly to oral antibiotics

D. tends to report higher antibiotic resistance

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4

What is true concerning BPS/IC?

A. the onset of symptoms is insidious

B. the lesion has no proven relation to bladder cancer

C. if left untreated, the bladder will turn small, contracted, with submucosal calcifications

D. a single positive urine culture refutes the diagnosis

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4

What virus(s) could cause orchitis?

A. Coxsackie B

B. Epstein-Barr

C. varicella

D. all of the above

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4

What does NOT predispose to acute epididymitis is:

A. TUR ejaculatory duct

B. prolonged urethral catheterization

C. prostatic biopsy

D. vas ligation

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4

The virulence of uropathogenic E.coli depends on all the following,
EXCEPT:

A. P blood-group antigen

B. P fimbriae in descending infections

C. emolysins

D. Dr family of adhesins in ascending infections

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4

Which of the following has NO role in bacterial colonization in the prostate?

A. intra-prostatic ductal reflux

B. paraphimosis

C. specific blood groups

D. unprotected anal intercourse

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4

What is the estimated risk of untreated Chlamydial infections in producing pelvic inflammatory disease?

A. 1 2.7%

B. 5 9%

C. 10 27%

D. 30 47%