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What is the correct answer?

4

What is the most important parameter that determines the treatment modality of a kidney stone?

A. stone chemical composition

B. stone burden

C. first stone vs. recurrent

D. stone density

Correct Answer :

B. stone burden


stone burden entails stones number, surface area, and volume.

Related Questions

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4

What is true regarding prostatic stones?

A. they are multiple and small in size

B. usually, they are voided spontaneously

C. they, rarely, form large stones within the peripheral zone

D. contrast CT is the conventional method for diagnosis

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4

Ureteral stones of ≥ 7 mm:

A. should be treated with more analgesics

B. must undergo metabolic worked out

C. are unlikely to pass out spontaneously

D. chemolysis should be tried first

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4

What is the most common organism that might complicate PCNL?

A. Proteus mirabilis

B. E. coli

C. Pseudomonas aeruginosa

D. Staphylococcus epidermidis

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4

What is the treatment of choice for a 15 mm stone in the lower calyx with a narrow infundibulum?

A. ESWL

B. PCNL

C. radial nephrolithotomy

D. pyelolithotomy with ureteral stenting

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4

What could high level of sulfate in 24-hr. urine collection mean?

A. dissolving homogenous nucleation

B. high tendency to form cystine sulfate stones

C. indicates the amount of dietary protein

D. post ESWL therapy

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4

What is the composition of brushite stones?

A. calcium phosphate

B. calcium oxalate monohydrate

C. sodium urate

D. 2,8 dihydroxyadenine

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4

What is (are) the indication(s) of ureteral stenting before ESWL?

A. stones in a solitary kidney

B. ureteral stones causing bilateral obstructions

C. a kidney stone of ≥ 2.5 cm in size

D. all of the above

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4

What is false concerning cystine stones?

A. result from an inherited defect of renal tubular reabsorption of cysteine

B. characteristically, urate and cysteine stone are radiolucent

C. cysteine is a dibasic amino acid

D. on plain X-ray, cysteine stones exhibit ground-glass appearance

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4

What is the unfavorable stone characteristic for a rigid URS treatment?

A. size of 5 mm

B. location at the lower calyx

C. density of 400 HU

D. being recurrent

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4

Invasive intervention in stone patients is NOT indicated in the following condition:

A. stone size

B. unrelieved obstruction

C. infection and septicemia

D. recurrent stone formation

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4

Which of the following factors, positively, affect lower calyceal stone clearance after ESWL?

A. short and wide infundibulum

B. large lower-pole infundibulo-pelvic angle

C. the adjunct usage of PCNL

D. all of the above

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4

What are the expected findings on urinalysis in patients with acute renal colic?

A. blood cells more than pus cells

B. pus cells if infection was superadded

C. crystals might appear

D. all of the above

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4

What is the fatality risk if a triple-phosphate staghorn stone left untreated?

A. 0 10%

B. 10 20%

C. 20 30%

D. 30 40%

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4

What condition might NOT cause uric acid stones?

A. Tumor lysis syndrome

B. hypoparathyroidism

C. myeloproliferative disorder

D. Lesch-Nyhan syndrome

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4

What is false concerning preputial stones?

A. form due to inspissated smegma

B. form due to stasis of urinary salts

C. cause inguinal lymphadenopathy

D. often associated with phimosis in uncircumcised males

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4

What is false concerning struvite stones?

A. the commonest to form staghorn giant calculi

B. formed by urease producing bacteria

C. antibiotics have a role in the treatment

D. form at the two extremes of urinary pH range

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4

What is the incidence risk of ureteral strictures following ureteroscopy?

A. 3 6 %

B. 12 15 %

C. 0.4 0.8 %

D. 0.09 0.14 %

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4

What is true concerning uric acid stones?

A. they are metabolic stones that form at high urinary pH

B. they score 800 1000 HU on CT

C. only 25% of affected patients have Gout disease

D. affected patients must stop eating animal protein

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4

What does nephrocalcin do?

A. dissolves cystine stones

B. enhances nephrocalcinosis process over old scared areas

C. inhibits Ca.oxalate aggregation and crystallization

D. plays a secondary role in metastatic calcification process

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4

What is the preferred entry point into the collecting system for PCNL for a 2.4 cm renal pelvis stone?

A. anterior lower pole calyx

B. posterior lower pole calyx

C. anterior upper pole calyx

D. posterior upper pole calyx

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4

For how long a completely obstructed ureter could be respited with no expected permanent damage to renal functions?

A. 2 days

B. 2 weeks

C. 2 months

D. 4 6 hrs.

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4

What is false regarding hypomagnesuric calcium nephrolithiasis?

A. it is characterized by low urinary magnesium and citrate

B. magnesium increases renal tubular citrate resorption

C. diarrheal is a remarkable side effect of magnesium therapy

D. potassium-magnesium preparations might restore urinary magnesium and citrate levels

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4

What is false concerning staghorn calculus?

A. commonly unilateral

B. commonly due to repeated infections

C. urate stones are the second most common cause of staghorn calculi

D. ESWL monotherapy with ureteral stenting is the ideal treatment

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4

Where do Randall plaques originate from?

A. transitional epithelium lining minor calyces

B. transitional epithelium lining major calyces

C. basement membrane of the loops of Henle

D. papillary tips of polar pyramids

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4

What type of shockwaves is generated by spark-gap technology?

A. piezoelectric

B. electrohydraulic

C. electromagnetic

D. microexplosive

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4

What is false regarding DJ ureteral stents?

A. can be introduced from the bladder or kidney or any part of the ureter`s course

B. the standard adult size is 32 cm long, 4 mm calibre

C. might result in encrustations and ureteral obstruction

D. might result in ureteral dilation

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4

What situation carries lower risk for lung injury during supracostal upper pole access for PCNL?

A. placing the patient in anti-Trendelenburg position

B. making the puncture under local anesthesia

C. injection Co2 gas to create a safety space under the diaphragm before puncturing

D. making the puncture during full expiration

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4

Which of the following bacteria split urea?

A. Klebsiella pneumonia

B. Morganella morganii

C. Proteus mirabilis

D. all of the above

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4

What is a remarkable disadvantage of ultrasonic imaging for ESWL?

A. localization of stones in the ureter is difficult or impossible

B. inability to visualize stones breaking down in real time

C. c. patient`s position on ESWL table is uncomfortable

D. d. inability to visualize radiolucent stones

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4

What is false concerning obesity and urinary stone formation?

A. obese patients have a higher tendency for uric acid stone formation

B. high-protein, low-carbohydrate diet might increase the risk of stone formation and bone loss

C. metabolic syndrome is associated with high urinary pH

D. Roux-en-Y-gastric bypass surgery may increase the risk for stone formation