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4

What does nephrocalcin do?

A. dissolves cystine stones

B. enhances nephrocalcinosis process over old scared areas

C. inhibits Ca.oxalate aggregation and crystallization

D. plays a secondary role in metastatic calcification process

Correct Answer :

C. inhibits Ca.oxalate aggregation and crystallization


nephrocalcin is a high molecular weight inhibitor of calcium oxalate crystal growth and aggregation.

Related Questions

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4

What type of stones do laxative abusers might develop?

A. ammonium urate

B. sodium urate

C. calcium oxalate

D. calcium phosphate

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4

As per the fixed particle theory of stone formation:

A. the initial step is papillary plaque formation

B. crystals formation occurs inside the nephron

C. tubular precipitates form harmless crystalluria

D. the attraction of organic compounds and activation crystallization is regulated by osteopontin

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4

What is the sure diagnostic finding of Ca.oxalate stones?

A. chemical analysis of a recovered stone

B. hypercalcemia

C. CT finding

D. high breakability on ESWL

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4

Which patient is at lowest risk for the development of perinephric hematoma after ESWL?

A. hypertensive patient

B. patient on aspirin withheld 5 days prior to ESWL

C. a stone in a scared poorly functioning kidney

D. ESWL every other day

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4

What is the most important parameter that determines the treatment modality of a kidney stone?

A. stone chemical composition

B. stone burden

C. first stone vs. recurrent

D. stone density

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4

What is the favorable stone characteristic for ESWL treatment?

A. 1000 - 1300 HU density

B. 5 - 10 mm diameter

C. lower calyx location

D. mid ureteral location

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4

What is the composition of brushite stones?

A. calcium phosphate

B. calcium oxalate monohydrate

C. sodium urate

D. 2,8 dihydroxyadenine

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4

What is true concerning the use of intravenous fluids in renal colic cases?

A. patients should be given large amounts of fluids to hasten stones passage

B. fluids are given to keep the patient well hydrated

C. the recommended regimen is 2 L of ringer lactate over 2 hours

D. fluids are contraindicated if desmopressin (DDAVP) was given

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4

What is the Hounsfield density range of uric acid stones?

A. 400 600 HU

B. 600 800 HU

C. 800 1000 HU

D. 1000 1200 HU

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4

What parameter impairs the kidney stone-free rate, after ESWL?

A. short skin-to-stone distance (SSD)

B. end-stage renal failure

C. a stone in the upper calyx

D. the presence of a 30 cm, 4.7 Fr ureteral stent in situ

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4

What could high level of sulfate in 24-hr. urine collection mean?

A. dissolving homogenous nucleation

B. high tendency to form cystine sulfate stones

C. indicates the amount of dietary protein

D. post ESWL therapy

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4

The process where nucleation and further precipitations occur by different components to form urinary stones, is called:

A. classical nucleation theory

B. heterogeneous nucleation

C. suspension solution

D. concentric lamination

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4

Two weeks of prolonged wound drainage after a non-stented Anderson-Hynes pyeloplasty. What would be next step in the management?

A. watchful waiting

B. open surgical correction

C. IVU with possible endoscopic ureteral stenting

D. perc. nephrostomy tube insertion

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4

What is false concerning obesity and urinary stone formation?

A. obese patients have a higher tendency for uric acid stone formation

B. high-protein, low-carbohydrate diet might increase the risk of stone formation and bone loss

C. metabolic syndrome is associated with high urinary pH

D. Roux-en-Y-gastric bypass surgery may increase the risk for stone formation

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4

What kind of stones is most amenable to ESWL?

A. cystine

B. brushite

C. Ca.oxalate monohydrate

D. Ca.oxalate dihydrate

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4

What is true concerning primary hyperparathyroidism and stone formation?

A. orthophosphates may have a role in the treatment

B. hyperparathyroidectomy and levothyroxine replacement is the optimum treatment

C. management includes Calcium chelating agent and repeat 24hr urine collection in 3 months

D. surgical excision of the adenoma(s) is the treatment of choice

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4

What stones are radiopaque on plain X-ray film?

A. 2,8 dihydroxyadenine stones

B. sulfa medications-induced stones

C. calcium oxalate stones

D. matrix stones

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4

What is false concerning urethral stones?

A. stones at posterior urethra could be pushed back to the bladder

B. stones at anterior urethra have to undergo a trial of milking out, using copious intra-urethral xylocaine gel

C. often respond to a two-week course of tamsulosin

D. respond to Holmium laser treatment

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4

How is primary oxaluria treated?

A. terminal ilium resection

B. liver transplantation

C. kidney transplantation

D. regular hemodialysis

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4

ESWL in pediatric patients is characterized by all of the following, EXCEPT:

A. often need sedation or anesthesia

B. vesico-ureteral reflux must be excluded

C. pediatrics have a higher clearance rate of stones when compared to adults

D. safety measures must be taken to avoid lung contusions

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4

What is the proper sequence of the following stones when ordered from most radiopaque to most radiolucent as they appear on plain Xray film?

A. Ca.oxalate, Ca.phosphate, Na.urate, cystine

B. Ca.phosphate, Ca.oxalate, cystine, Na.urate

C. Ca.oxalate, Ca.phosphate, cystine, Na.urate

D. Ca.phosphate, Ca.oxalate, Na.urate, cystine

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4

What congenital anomaly is unlikely to result in stone formation?

A. left ureterocele

B. bifid right renal pelvis

C. neurogenic bladder

D. bilateral UPJ stenosis

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4

What is false regarding DJ ureteral stents?

A. can be introduced from the bladder or kidney or any part of the ureter`s course

B. the standard adult size is 32 cm long, 4 mm calibre

C. might result in encrustations and ureteral obstruction

D. might result in ureteral dilation

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4

What medications do NOT cause renal stones?

A. ciprofloxacin

B. indinavir

C. thiazides

D. triamterene

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4

Which statement is false concerning renal stones related to hyperparathyroidism (HPT)?

A. renal stones are found in 20% of patients with primary HPT

B. acidic arrest promotes crystallisation of calcium phosphate stones related to HPT

C. HPT, vitamin D excess, and malignancy could lead to hypercalcemia and hypercalciuria

D. only surgery can cure primary HPT

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4

What is the most favorable stone characteristics for laparoscopic and robotic approaches for the treatment of a kidney stone?

A. a stone in the lower calyx with a wide mouth of infundibulum and obtuse lower calyx to ureter angle

B. a stone in an anterior group calyceal diverticulum with thin overlying renal parenchyma

C. 5 mm calcium-containing stone in an intrarenal pelvis and wide UPJ

D. 6 years post anatrophic nephrolithotomy, recurrent mid calyceal stone

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4

Why do patients with cystic fibrosis form stones?

A. because urine and body secretions are highly concentrated

B. due to renal leak hypercalciuria

C. as a result of distal renal tubular acidosis type I

D. because of reduced or absent of oxalobacter formigenes colonization

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4

Expectant therapy for ureteral stones is indicated when:

A. stone size of ≤ 4 mm

B. stone burden of ≥ 22 mm

C. there is a distal partial obstruction

D. the patient has end-stage renal failure

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4

What does NOT appear as a filling defect in the renal pelvis on IVU?

A. fungal ball

B. radiolucent stone

C. urothelial growth

D. upper end of DJ ureteral stent

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4

What is (are) the indication(s) of hospitalization of ureteral stone patients?

A. steinstrasse

B. a stone in ureterocele

C. fever, leucocytosis, pain

D. brushite stones