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4

What is the preferred entry point into the collecting system for PCNL for a 2.4 cm renal pelvis stone?

A. anterior lower pole calyx

B. posterior lower pole calyx

C. anterior upper pole calyx

D. posterior upper pole calyx

Correct Answer :

B. posterior lower pole calyx


posterolateral puncture directed at the lower posterior calyx would traverse through an avascular zone.

Related Questions

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4

What could high dietary protein result in?

A. increase urinary calcium, oxalate, and uric acid excretion

B. decrease urinary calcium; but increase oxalate, and uric acid excretion

C. increased urinary calcium and uric acid; but decrease oxalate excretion

D. decreased urinary calcium, oxalate, and uric acid excretion

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4

Which of the following factors, positively, affect lower calyceal stone clearance after ESWL?

A. short and wide infundibulum

B. large lower-pole infundibulo-pelvic angle

C. the adjunct usage of PCNL

D. all of the above

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4

What is (are) true concerning ESWL?

A. a stone is fragmented when the force of the shockwaves overcomes the tensile strength of the stone

B. fragmentation occurs as a result of compressive and tensile forces, erosion, shearing, spalling, and cavitation

C. the generation of compressive and tensile forces and cavitation are thought to be the most important

D. all of the above

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4

What is false concerning patient`s preparation for PCNL?

A. active UTI is an absolute contraindication

B. fluoroquinolone is the first choice for antimicrobial prophylaxis

C. withholding aspirin for only 10 days is enough

D. despite sterile urine, stone fragmentation might release hidden bacterial endotoxins and viable bacteria

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4

What metabolic disturbances could result from renal tubular acidosis type I?

A. hypercalciuria and hypocitraturia

B. hypercalciuria and hypercitraturia

C. hypocalciuria and hypocitraturia

D. hypocalciuria and hypercitraturia

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4

During pyelolithotomy for removing a staghorn urate stone; how to ensure a complete removal of calyceal branches?

A. by performing intra-operative ultrasonography

B. by performing radial nephrotomies

C. by performing adjunct PCLN

D. by taking a scout KUB film

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4

In what kind of renal stones do antibiotics help most?

A. indinavir

B. magnesium ammonium phosphate

C. xanthine

D. matrix

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4

A 24-hr urine collection of a recurrent Ca. oxalate stone former patient having Crohn`s disease might reveal:

A. high citrate, high oxalate

B. low citrate, low oxalate

C. high citrate, low oxalate

D. low citrate, high oxalate

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4

Invasive intervention in stone patients is NOT indicated in the following condition:

A. stone size

B. unrelieved obstruction

C. infection and septicemia

D. recurrent stone formation

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4

What is the treatment of choice for a 15 mm stone in the lower calyx with a narrow infundibulum?

A. ESWL

B. PCNL

C. radial nephrolithotomy

D. pyelolithotomy with ureteral stenting

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4

What congenital anomaly is unlikely to result in stone formation?

A. left ureterocele

B. bifid right renal pelvis

C. neurogenic bladder

D. bilateral UPJ stenosis

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4

What is the incidence risk of ureteral strictures following ureteroscopy?

A. 3 6 %

B. 12 15 %

C. 0.4 0.8 %

D. 0.09 0.14 %

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4

What is false concerning primary bladder stones?

A. commoner in females than in males

B. in pediatrics, are of calcium oxalate and/or ammonium urate composition

C. caused by bladder outlet obstruction

D. might result in bladder cancer

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4

Patients having what kind of stones should refrain from eating purines?

A. cysteine

B. urate

C. calcium

D. none of the above

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4

What is a remarkable disadvantage of ultrasonic imaging for ESWL?

A. localization of stones in the ureter is difficult or impossible

B. inability to visualize stones breaking down in real time

C. c. patient`s position on ESWL table is uncomfortable

D. d. inability to visualize radiolucent stones

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4

What does the treatment of hyperuricemia with urate stones include?

A. oral potassium sodium hydrogen citrate granules

B. increase hydration

C. allopurinol

D. all of the above

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4

What is true concerning uric acid stones?

A. they are metabolic stones that form at high urinary pH

B. they score 800 1000 HU on CT

C. only 25% of affected patients have Gout disease

D. affected patients must stop eating animal protein

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4

What kind of stones is most amenable to ESWL?

A. cystine

B. brushite

C. Ca.oxalate monohydrate

D. Ca.oxalate dihydrate

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4

What is the treatment of choice for a 15 mm stone in a mid calyceal diverticulum?

A. ESWL

B. PCNL with fulguration of the diverticulum

C. ureteroscopy with fulguration of the diverticulum

D. pyelolithotomy with diverticulectomy

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4

Which statement is false concerning renal stones related to hyperparathyroidism (HPT)?

A. renal stones are found in 20% of patients with primary HPT

B. acidic arrest promotes crystallisation of calcium phosphate stones related to HPT

C. HPT, vitamin D excess, and malignancy could lead to hypercalcemia and hypercalciuria

D. only surgery can cure primary HPT

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4

What sequence of ureteral parts represents the most to least favorable stone response to ESWL treatment?

A. upper, lower, mid

B. lower, upper, mid

C. mid, upper, lower

D. mid, lower, upper

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4

What is the preferred irrigation fluid during PCNL?

A. physiological saline 0.9%

B. glycine 1.5%

C. balanced salt solution

D. distilled water

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4

Which event is unlikely to occur after placing a DJ ureteral stent?

A. can be forgotten in place

B. vesico-renal reflux

C. calyceal perforation

D. detrusor irritability and/or hematuria

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4

Why do patients with cystic fibrosis form stones?

A. because urine and body secretions are highly concentrated

B. due to renal leak hypercalciuria

C. as a result of distal renal tubular acidosis type I

D. because of reduced or absent of oxalobacter formigenes colonization

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4

What is the unfavorable stone characteristic for a rigid URS treatment?

A. size of 5 mm

B. location at the lower calyx

C. density of 400 HU

D. being recurrent

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4

What does NOT appear as a filling defect in the renal pelvis on IVU?

A. fungal ball

B. radiolucent stone

C. urothelial growth

D. upper end of DJ ureteral stent

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4

What parameter is NOT considered in the stone burden concept?

A. the surface area of the stones

B. the volume of the stones

C. the density of the stones

D. the number of the stones

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4

What is false concerning neonatal nephrolithiasis?

A. frequently caused by loop diuretics

B. stones are often radiolucent

C. may be reversed by the use of thiazides

D. low calcium-to-creatinine ratio predicts stones resolution

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4

What does nephrocalcin do?

A. dissolves cystine stones

B. enhances nephrocalcinosis process over old scared areas

C. inhibits Ca.oxalate aggregation and crystallization

D. plays a secondary role in metastatic calcification process

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4

What is false concerning prostatic stones?

A. composed of calcium phosphate and calcium carbonate

B. the vast majority are asymptomatic

C. most of the calculi are found in the transitional zone

D. they dont affect PSA levels