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What is the correct answer?

4

Ureteral stones of ≥ 7 mm:

A. should be treated with more analgesics

B. must undergo metabolic worked out

C. are unlikely to pass out spontaneously

D. chemolysis should be tried first

Correct Answer :

C. are unlikely to pass out spontaneously


stones < 4 mm in diameter have an 80% chance of spontaneous passage; while stones larger than 8 mm have only 20% chance of passing on their own.

Related Questions

What is the correct answer?

4

Ureteral stones of ≥ 7 mm:

A. should be treated with more analgesics

B. must undergo metabolic worked out

C. are unlikely to pass out spontaneously

D. chemolysis should be tried first

What is the correct answer?

4

What is false concerning neonatal nephrolithiasis?

A. frequently caused by loop diuretics

B. stones are often radiolucent

C. may be reversed by the use of thiazides

D. low calcium-to-creatinine ratio predicts stones resolution

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4

What is false regarding hypomagnesuric calcium nephrolithiasis?

A. it is characterized by low urinary magnesium and citrate

B. magnesium increases renal tubular citrate resorption

C. diarrheal is a remarkable side effect of magnesium therapy

D. potassium-magnesium preparations might restore urinary magnesium and citrate levels

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4

When should renal stone patients be evaluated for metabolic diseases?

A. when stones are multiple and/or recurrent

B. when stones form in childhood

C. in cases where nephrocalcinosis and urolithiasis are present

D. all of the above

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4

What is the treatment of choice for a 15 mm stone in a mid calyceal diverticulum?

A. ESWL

B. PCNL with fulguration of the diverticulum

C. ureteroscopy with fulguration of the diverticulum

D. pyelolithotomy with diverticulectomy

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4

For how long a completely obstructed ureter could be respited with no expected permanent damage to renal functions?

A. 2 days

B. 2 weeks

C. 2 months

D. 4 6 hrs.

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4

What does nephrocalcin do?

A. dissolves cystine stones

B. enhances nephrocalcinosis process over old scared areas

C. inhibits Ca.oxalate aggregation and crystallization

D. plays a secondary role in metastatic calcification process

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4

As per the fixed particle theory of stone formation:

A. the initial step is papillary plaque formation

B. crystals formation occurs inside the nephron

C. tubular precipitates form harmless crystalluria

D. the attraction of organic compounds and activation crystallization is regulated by osteopontin

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4

What type of urinary diversion carries the highest risk of stone formation?

A. Kock pouch

B. Neobladder-to-urethra diversion

C. Florida pouch

D. Indiana pouch

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4

Expectant therapy for ureteral stones is indicated when:

A. stone size of ≤ 4 mm

B. stone burden of ≥ 22 mm

C. there is a distal partial obstruction

D. the patient has end-stage renal failure

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4

What medication(s) could be helpful in the management of cystinuria?

A. α-Mercaptopropionylglycine

B. d-Penicillamine

C. a & b

D. none of the above

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4

What stones are radiopaque on plain X-ray film?

A. 2,8 dihydroxyadenine stones

B. sulfa medications-induced stones

C. calcium oxalate stones

D. matrix stones

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4

What is the unfavorable stone characteristic for a rigid URS treatment?

A. size of 5 mm

B. location at the lower calyx

C. density of 400 HU

D. being recurrent

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4

What is false concerning PCNL in horseshoe kidneys?

A. the preferred access into the collecting system is through a posterior calyx

B. the posterior calyceal group is typically more medial than in the normal kidney

C. in most cases the lower pole calyces are posterior

D. it is desirable to make an upper pole collecting system puncture

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4

Patients having what kind of stones should refrain from eating purines?

A. cysteine

B. urate

C. calcium

D. none of the above

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4

What are the expected findings on urinalysis in patients with acute renal colic?

A. blood cells more than pus cells

B. pus cells if infection was superadded

C. crystals might appear

D. all of the above

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4

What metabolic disturbances could result from renal tubular acidosis type I?

A. hypercalciuria and hypocitraturia

B. hypercalciuria and hypercitraturia

C. hypocalciuria and hypocitraturia

D. hypocalciuria and hypercitraturia

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4

Which of the following is a relative contra-indication to ESWL?

A. renal insufficiency

B. active urinary tract infection

C. uncorrected bleeding disorder

D. third trimester pregnancy

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4

What is false regarding DJ ureteral stents?

A. can be introduced from the bladder or kidney or any part of the ureter`s course

B. the standard adult size is 32 cm long, 4 mm calibre

C. might result in encrustations and ureteral obstruction

D. might result in ureteral dilation

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4

What could high level of sulfate in 24-hr. urine collection mean?

A. dissolving homogenous nucleation

B. high tendency to form cystine sulfate stones

C. indicates the amount of dietary protein

D. post ESWL therapy

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4

What risk factor(s) promote(s) stone formation?

A. dehydration

B. metabolic disorders

C. congenital anomalies

D. all of the above

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4

What medications do NOT cause renal stones?

A. ciprofloxacin

B. indinavir

C. thiazides

D. triamterene

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4

What could high dietary protein result in?

A. increase urinary calcium, oxalate, and uric acid excretion

B. decrease urinary calcium; but increase oxalate, and uric acid excretion

C. increased urinary calcium and uric acid; but decrease oxalate excretion

D. decreased urinary calcium, oxalate, and uric acid excretion

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4

What is true concerning primary hyperparathyroidism and stone formation?

A. orthophosphates may have a role in the treatment

B. hyperparathyroidectomy and levothyroxine replacement is the optimum treatment

C. management includes Calcium chelating agent and repeat 24hr urine collection in 3 months

D. surgical excision of the adenoma(s) is the treatment of choice

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4

What does the treatment of hyperuricemia with urate stones include?

A. oral potassium sodium hydrogen citrate granules

B. increase hydration

C. allopurinol

D. all of the above

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4

What statement is false concerning the use of desmopressin (DDAVP) in renal colic patients?

A. it causes reduction in the mean intra-ureteral pressure

B. it reduces the pain of acute renal colic

C. it has a direct relaxing effect on the renal pelvis and ureteral musculature

D. it is indicated when stones are ≤ 4 mm in diameter

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4

How can the effectiveness of ESWL treatment session be enhanced?

A. by ensuring optimal coupling of the patient to the lithotripter

B. by running the treatment at a slower rate (60 shocks/min)

C. by running the treatment with general anesthesia

D. by all of the above

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4

During pyelolithotomy for removing a staghorn urate stone; how to ensure a complete removal of calyceal branches?

A. by performing intra-operative ultrasonography

B. by performing radial nephrotomies

C. by performing adjunct PCLN

D. by taking a scout KUB film

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4

Two weeks of prolonged wound drainage after a non-stented Anderson-Hynes pyeloplasty. What would be next step in the management?

A. watchful waiting

B. open surgical correction

C. IVU with possible endoscopic ureteral stenting

D. perc. nephrostomy tube insertion

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4

What is (are) the indication(s) of hospitalization of ureteral stone patients?

A. steinstrasse

B. a stone in ureterocele

C. fever, leucocytosis, pain

D. brushite stones