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What is the correct answer?

4

What could high level of sulfate in 24-hr. urine collection mean?

A. dissolving homogenous nucleation

B. high tendency to form cystine sulfate stones

C. indicates the amount of dietary protein

D. post ESWL therapy

Correct Answer :

C. indicates the amount of dietary protein


sulfate level in a 24-hour urine is an indication of the amount of protein intake.

Related Questions

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4

What is true regarding prostatic stones?

A. they are multiple and small in size

B. usually, they are voided spontaneously

C. they, rarely, form large stones within the peripheral zone

D. contrast CT is the conventional method for diagnosis

What is the correct answer?

4

What could high level of sulfate in 24-hr. urine collection mean?

A. dissolving homogenous nucleation

B. high tendency to form cystine sulfate stones

C. indicates the amount of dietary protein

D. post ESWL therapy

What is the correct answer?

4

What is false concerning cystine stones?

A. have diagnostic hexagonal crystals

B. dont respond to ESWL therapy

C. are highly soluble in water

D. inherited in an autosomal recessive fashion

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4

For how long a completely obstructed ureter could be respited with no expected permanent damage to renal functions?

A. 2 days

B. 2 weeks

C. 2 months

D. 4 6 hrs.

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4

What is false concerning staghorn calculus?

A. commonly unilateral

B. commonly due to repeated infections

C. urate stones are the second most common cause of staghorn calculi

D. ESWL monotherapy with ureteral stenting is the ideal treatment

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4

What stone is inherited as an autosomal recessive trait?

A. xanthine

B. ammonium urate

C. cystine

D. calcium oxalate dihydrate

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4

Which of the following dietary advice is recommended for Ca.oxalate stone formers?

A. limit beef, chicken, pork, eggs, fish, shellfish, and other animal proteins

B. limit beans, nuts, chocolate, coffee, dark green vegetables, and soda

C. limit canned, packaged, and fast foods

D. limit milk, cheese, and other dairy products

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4

What is (are) the indication(s) of using DJ ureteral catheters?

A. to stent the ureter after ureteral surgery

B. to facilitate stone passage

C. after a tough ureteroscopy procedure

D. all of the above

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4

What is true concerning uric acid stones?

A. they are metabolic stones that form at high urinary pH

B. they score 800 1000 HU on CT

C. only 25% of affected patients have Gout disease

D. affected patients must stop eating animal protein

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4

What type of urinary diversion carries the highest risk of stone formation?

A. Kock pouch

B. Neobladder-to-urethra diversion

C. Florida pouch

D. Indiana pouch

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4

What is false regarding DJ ureteral stents?

A. can be introduced from the bladder or kidney or any part of the ureter`s course

B. the standard adult size is 32 cm long, 4 mm calibre

C. might result in encrustations and ureteral obstruction

D. might result in ureteral dilation

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4

Two weeks of prolonged wound drainage after a non-stented Anderson-Hynes pyeloplasty. What would be next step in the management?

A. watchful waiting

B. open surgical correction

C. IVU with possible endoscopic ureteral stenting

D. perc. nephrostomy tube insertion

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4

What is the first-line treatment of kidney stones of a burden greater than 2 cm?

A. ESWL

B. URS

C. PCNL

D. none of the above

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4

What type of stones is soft, resilient, composed of mucoproteins of urine and serum?

A. matrix

B. indinavir

C. brushite

D. 2,8 dihydroxyadenine

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4

What is false regarding hypomagnesuric calcium nephrolithiasis?

A. it is characterized by low urinary magnesium and citrate

B. magnesium increases renal tubular citrate resorption

C. diarrheal is a remarkable side effect of magnesium therapy

D. potassium-magnesium preparations might restore urinary magnesium and citrate levels

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4

What is true regarding a stone in a urethral diverticulum?

A. is symptomless

B. should undergo a trial of milking out

C. diverticulectomy and stone extraction is the treatment of choice

D. ESWL is the preferred treatment option

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4

What could carry the least risk of colon injury during PCNL?

A. subcostal puncture performed during full expiration

B. previous open nephrolithotomy

C. access lateral to the posterior axillary line

D. horseshoe kidney

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4

Expectant therapy for ureteral stones is indicated when:

A. stone size of ≤ 4 mm

B. stone burden of ≥ 22 mm

C. there is a distal partial obstruction

D. the patient has end-stage renal failure

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4

What is the most favorable stone characteristics for laparoscopic and robotic approaches for the treatment of a kidney stone?

A. a stone in the lower calyx with a wide mouth of infundibulum and obtuse lower calyx to ureter angle

B. a stone in an anterior group calyceal diverticulum with thin overlying renal parenchyma

C. 5 mm calcium-containing stone in an intrarenal pelvis and wide UPJ

D. 6 years post anatrophic nephrolithotomy, recurrent mid calyceal stone

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4

What is the treatment of choice for a 15 mm stone in the lower calyx with a narrow infundibulum?

A. ESWL

B. PCNL

C. radial nephrolithotomy

D. pyelolithotomy with ureteral stenting

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4

What condition might NOT cause uric acid stones?

A. Tumor lysis syndrome

B. hypoparathyroidism

C. myeloproliferative disorder

D. Lesch-Nyhan syndrome

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4

Worldwide, the commonest type of urinary stones is:

A. calcium monohydrate

B. calcium oxalate

C. ammonium urate

D. none of the above

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4

What medication could help in managing carbonate apatite stones?

A. α-Mercaptopropionylglycine

B. acetohydroxamic acid

C. carbonic anhydrase inhibitors

D. xanthine oxidase inhibitors

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4

Which method of the following stone analysis techniques is based on the interaction of polarized light with the stone crystals?

A. wet chemical analysis

B. thermogravimetry

C. scanning electron microscopy

D. none of the above

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4

How does oral Mg.citrate inhibit Ca.oxalate stone formation?

A. by lowering urinary saturation of Ca.oxalate

B. by preventing heterogeneous nucleation of Ca.oxalate

C. by inhibiting spontaneous precipitation and agglomeration of Ca.oxalate

D. by all of the above

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4

What is the unfavorable stone characteristic for a rigid URS treatment?

A. size of 5 mm

B. location at the lower calyx

C. density of 400 HU

D. being recurrent

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4

What is false concerning neonatal nephrolithiasis?

A. frequently caused by loop diuretics

B. stones are often radiolucent

C. may be reversed by the use of thiazides

D. low calcium-to-creatinine ratio predicts stones resolution

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4

What congenital anomaly is unlikely to result in stone formation?

A. left ureterocele

B. bifid right renal pelvis

C. neurogenic bladder

D. bilateral UPJ stenosis

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4

What situation carries lower risk for lung injury during supracostal upper pole access for PCNL?

A. placing the patient in anti-Trendelenburg position

B. making the puncture under local anesthesia

C. injection Co2 gas to create a safety space under the diaphragm before puncturing

D. making the puncture during full expiration

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4

What is the least likely condition to form bladder stones?

A. spinal cord injury

B. senile enlargement of prostate

C. augmented bladder

D. neurogenic hyper-reflexive bladder