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a. management of concomitant Hutch diverticulum

A. removing small bladder stones

B. better access to prostatic fossa

C. technically, easier trigonization

D. . When comparing retropubic to suprapubic prostatectomy for removing prostatic adenoma, the former has the advantage of:

Correct Answer :

B. better access to prostatic fossa


the direct access to prostatic fossa allows better hemostasis resulting in milder postoperative hematuria.

Related Questions

What is the correct answer?

4

The probability of developing acute urinary retention is related to:

A. the neurological status of the patient

B. PVR

C. severity of obstructive LUTS

D. all of the above

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4

Smooth muscle tension in the prostate is mediated by which receptors?

A. α1-a

B. α1-b

C. α2-a

D. α2-b

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4

What is false concerning TURP syndrome?

A. symptoms begin with a serum sodium of less than 120 mEq/L

B. the mortality is 2.7-5.8 %

C. manifestations rely on acute changes in the intravascular volume and plasma solute concentrations

D. the preferred height of irrigating fluid is 60 cm above the patient

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4

BPH patients with severe irritative symptoms or microscopic hematuria should:

A. go for urine cytology testing

B. go for PSA testing

C. go for TRUS

D. use anticholinergic medication

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4

What is false regarding BPH genetics?

A. BPH is an inheritable and progressive disease

B. familial BPH presents at an older age when compared to sporadic cases

C. approximately 90% of men in their 80s have histologic evidence of BPH

D. BPH tends to be more severe and progressive in black men when compared to whites

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4

What is (are) the possible complication(s) of prostate stents?

A. hematuria and infections

B. migration and encrustation of the stent

C. irritative urinary symptoms and painful ejaculation

D. all of the above

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4

Anticholinergic medications work best with BPH patients who have:

A. small prostate

B. mainly median lobe hypertrophy

C. history of urinary retention

D. mainly irritative symptoms

What is the correct answer?

4

a. management of concomitant Hutch diverticulum

A. removing small bladder stones

B. better access to prostatic fossa

C. technically, easier trigonization

D. . When comparing retropubic to suprapubic prostatectomy for removing prostatic adenoma, the former has the advantage of:

What is the correct answer?

4

What is true regarding the use of α-blockers and the development of Intraoperative Floppy Iris Syndrome (IFIS)?

A. complicates approximately 0.7% of cataract surgery cases

B. manifests as poor preoperative pupil dilation, iris prolapse, and progressive intraoperative miosis

C. it could persist long after the discontinuation of tamsulosin

D. intraoperative lidocaine reduces its incidence in patients taking α- adrenergic inhibitors

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4

What is (are) the favorite criterion (criteria) to prescribe 5α- reductase inhibitors for BPH cases?

A. PSA > 1.5 ng/dL

B. prostate volume > 40 ml

C. IPSS > 19

D. a & b

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4

In an 80 yrs. diabetic man on insulin for 35 yrs.; what would be the proper sequence of developing the following obstructing BPH/LUTS?

A. frequency, over-flow incontinence, straining, retention

B. straining, frequency, over-flow incontinence, retention

C. straining, frequency, retention, over-flow incontinence

D. frequency, straining, retention, over-flow incontinence

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4

Which statement is false regarding TURP syndrome?

A. occurs because of absorption of non-sodium-containing irrigating fluid

B. occurs only on using unipolar TURP

C. results in brain edema due to dilutional hyponatremia

D. positioning the patient in anti-Trendelenburg helps prevent the syndrome

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4

Which of the following is NOT classified as a complicated LUTS?

A. LUTS with neurologic disease

B. LUTS with post-void dribble

C. LUTS with suspicious DRE

D. LUTS with hematuria

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4

Which statement best describes the natural history of BPH:

A. worsening of LUTS and BPH over time

B. patients die of other reasons before serious complications occur

C. physically, the space of prostatic fossa limits the gland enlargement

D. ultimately, the gland will degenerate and undergo apoptosis

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a. operation cost

A. smaller incisions with a shorter hospital stay

B. lower risk for blood transfusion

C. none of the above

D. . What is the first-line management of uncomplicated LUTS due to large prostate?

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4

What is false concerning the pathogenesis of BPH?

A. intra-prostatic levels of estrogen decrease in men with BPH

B. stimulation of the adrenergic nervous system results in a dynamic increase in prostatic urethral resistance

C. inflammation may play a role through cytokines to promote cell growth

D. hyperplasia occurs due to an imbalance between cell death and cell proliferation

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4

Which statement is false concerning transurethral microwave therapy (TUMT) for BPH treatment:

A. induces nerve degeneration in the prostate and tissue necrosis

B. frequently results in transient urinary retention

C. frequently leads to erectile dysfunction

D. the high-energy platform is superior to the low-energy with regard to clinical efficacy

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4

Preferably, what is the last part of the prostate to be removed while performing TURP?

A. bladder neck

B. apex

C. median lobe

D. para-collecular

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4

as adjuncts therapy in BPH cases?

A. men with storage symptoms

B. men with ED

C. failed combination of α-adrenergic blocker and 5α-reductase inhibitor

D. a & b

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4

In BPH, the etiology of acute urinary retention includes:

A. prostatic infarction

B. prostate infection

C. bladder overdistention

D. all of the above

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4

On treating BPH, which procedure carries the risk of morcellator injury to the bladder?

A. PVP

B. HoLEP

C. HoLRP

D. TUMT

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4

What is false concerning bladder and prostate histology in BPH?

A. obstruction results in bladder smooth muscle hypertrophy and myofibroblasts deposition

B. BPH occurs chiefly in the transitional zone and periurethral tissues

C. BPH microscopical changes begin in early thirties

D. histologic findings of chronic prostatitis are common in BPH

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4

On treating BPH, which procedure provides the best tissue preservation for pathological examination?

A. TURP

B. TUIP

C. HoLEP

D. HoLRP

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4

The most serious drawback of anticholinergic drugs on BPH patients is:

A. renal insufficiency

B. urinary retention

C. dry mouth

D. painless hematuria

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4

IPSS decreases after successful TURP because:

A. PSA decreases

B. the prostate size decreases

C. the complaints resolve

D. the Q.O.L improves

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4

What is (are) the indication(s) of upper urinary tract imaging in men with LUTS?

A. hematuria

B. recurrent urinary tract infection

C. renal insufficiency

D. all of the above

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4

What statement is true regarding post-void residual of urine (PVR)?

A. nearly all men have PVR of less than 12 ml

B. it predicts the outcome of surgical treatment

C. it correlates well with BPH/LUTS

D. it is diagnostic for bladder outlet obstruction

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4

An ED patient on low-dose tadalafil develops BPH. What medication should he avoid?

A. tamsulosin

B. alfuzosin

C. doxazosin

D. silodosin

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4

In BPH patients, total PSA level correlates to:

A. the glandular component of the prostate

B. the IPSS questionnaire points

C. the PVR

D. the transitional zone volume

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4

TURP carries an incidence of retrograde ejaculation of:

A. 62 - 78%

B. 48 - 61%

C. 79 - 93%

D. 34 - 47%