Home
Current Affairs January 2024

What is the correct answer?

4

In BPH patients, total PSA level correlates to:

A. the glandular component of the prostate

B. the IPSS questionnaire points

C. the PVR

D. the transitional zone volume

Correct Answer :

A. the glandular component of the prostate


because the glandular (acinar) cells secrete PSA.

Related Questions

What is the correct answer?

4

a. operation cost

A. smaller incisions with a shorter hospital stay

B. lower risk for blood transfusion

C. none of the above

D. . What is the first-line management of uncomplicated LUTS due to large prostate?

What is the correct answer?

4

BPH/LUTS patients when present with mild creatinine elevation, are advised to do:

A. total and free PSA

B. renal ultrasonography

C. creatinine clearance

D. uroflowmetry

What is the correct answer?

4

In BPH patients, which of the following measures reduces PSA value by one-half?

A. 2 weeks after performing prostatic urethral lift

B. 6-month treatment with 5α-reductase inhibitors

C. after placing a stent in the prostatic urethra

D. immediately after removing one-half of the prostate by TURP

What is the correct answer?

4

In BPH patients, follow up PSA is of value because:

A. it helps predict the response to 5α-reductase inhibitors

B. it monitors LUTS/BPH progression

C. BPH patients are at higher risk of developing prostate cancer

D. a & b

What is the correct answer?

4

BPH patients with severe irritative symptoms or microscopic hematuria should:

A. go for urine cytology testing

B. go for PSA testing

C. go for TRUS

D. use anticholinergic medication

What is the correct answer?

4

a. management of concomitant Hutch diverticulum

A. removing small bladder stones

B. better access to prostatic fossa

C. technically, easier trigonization

D. . When comparing retropubic to suprapubic prostatectomy for removing prostatic adenoma, the former has the advantage of:

What is the correct answer?

4

On treating BPH, which procedure provides the best tissue preservation for pathological examination?

A. TURP

B. TUIP

C. HoLEP

D. HoLRP

What is the correct answer?

4

What is the capsular perforation rate in prostate vaporization surgery?

A. 0.2 1%

B. 1.2 2.1%

C. 2.3 3.4%

D. 3.7 5.6%

What is the correct answer?

4

A BPH patient presents with retention of urine. He is Catheterized. Later, he underwent TURP. When would the highest PSA value be?

A. before catheterization

B. after catheterization and before TURP

C. immediately after TURP

D. 2 weeks after TURP

What is the correct answer?

4

What is false concerning IPSS questionnaire?

A. is specific for prostate symptom

B. is a seven-question, self-administered questionnaire that yields a total score that ranges from 0 to 35

C. a sum of 20 on IPSS scale is severe

D. it covers both voiding and storage symptomatology

What is the correct answer?

4

What is (are) the indication(s) to prescribe α-adrenergic inhibitors for BPH patients?

A. peak flow rate of ≤ 12 mL/sec

B. prostate volume > 40 ml

C. PSA > 1.5 ng/dL

D. b & c

What is the correct answer?

4

What is the initial response of the detrusor muscle to obstruction?

A. increased intravesical pressure

B. increased detrusor pressure

C. increase collagen deposition in the detrusor

D. detrusor smooth muscle hypertrophy

What is the correct answer?

4

What is true concerning epithelial and stromal cells in BPH?

A. there is an increase in the number of epithelial and stromal cells

B. there is an increase in the size of epithelial and stromal cells

C. in BPH, epithelial to stromal cells ratio is 1:2

D. all of the above

What is the correct answer?

4

When comparing HoLEP to open prostatectomy for a 70 g prostatic adenoma removal; what parameter goes in favor of the latter?

A. operation time

B. duration of in-hospital stay

C. amount of blood transfused

D. time to catheter removal

What is the correct answer?

4

What is true regarding the use of α-blockers and the development of Intraoperative Floppy Iris Syndrome (IFIS)?

A. complicates approximately 0.7% of cataract surgery cases

B. manifests as poor preoperative pupil dilation, iris prolapse, and progressive intraoperative miosis

C. it could persist long after the discontinuation of tamsulosin

D. intraoperative lidocaine reduces its incidence in patients taking α- adrenergic inhibitors

What is the correct answer?

4

A 55 yrs. male patient with familial BPH, IPSS 9, PSA 23ng/ml, prostate size 31 cc, PVR 54 cc, on watchful waiting management. Next step should be:

A. tamsulosin 0.8 mg

B. reassurance

C. repeat total and free PSA

D. diagnostic cystoscopy

What is the correct answer?

4

Which drug reduces the incidence of prostate cancer by 23% with a small increase in high-grade tumor incidence?

A. cetrorelix

B. flutamide

C. dutasteride

D. zanoterone

What is the correct answer?

4

On measuring the prostate volume during endoscopy:

A. each centimeter over the normal 2-cm prostate urethral length equates

B. an additional 12 g in prostate weight

C. each centimeter over the normal 2.5-cm prostate urethral length equates

D. an additional 10 g in prostate weight

What is the correct answer?

4

What is (are) the possible complication(s) of prostate stents?

A. hematuria and infections

B. migration and encrustation of the stent

C. irritative urinary symptoms and painful ejaculation

D. all of the above

What is the correct answer?

4

What prostatic lobe(s) can be assessed during DRE?

A. anterior

B. median

C. left lateral

D. all of the above

What is the correct answer?

4

What is false regarding prostate embolization for BPH?

A. the aim is to occlude the internal iliac vessels

B. there is a considerable radiation risk during the procedure

C. bilateral embolization provides better results

D. eye protection is not required

What is the correct answer?

4

a. no risk of dilutional hyponatremia

A. operating on patients with multiple bladder diverticula

B. operating on patients who cannot flex their hips and/or knees

C. unfavorable tissue preservation for pathological examination

D. . What is (are) the contraindication(s) to open prostatectomy for prostatic adenoma?

What is the correct answer?

4

a. urethral stricture

A. bladder stones

B. BPH

C. prostatitis syndrome

D. . What is (are) the indication(s) of antimuscarinic agents and PDEIs

What is the correct answer?

4

TURP syndrome is more likely to occur when:

A. the irrigating fluid is at a pressure exceeding 10 mm Hg

B. the prostate volume is > 45 cc

C. the resection time is > 90 minutes

D. all of the above

What is the correct answer?

4

What is true regarding mirabegron, the β3 agonist, in treating BPH?

A. achieves better results when combined with antimuscarinic

B. enhances detrusor contractility resulting in higher Q-max

C. enhance detrusor relaxation during bladder-filling phase

D. increases voiding pressure that poses risk on renal function

What is the correct answer?

4

In BPH patients, total PSA level correlates to:

A. the glandular component of the prostate

B. the IPSS questionnaire points

C. the PVR

D. the transitional zone volume

What is the correct answer?

4

Open prostatectomy is preferred in treating BPH with:

A. sizable bladder stones

B. Hutch diverticulum

C. a suspicion of cancer

D. a & b

What is the correct answer?

4

a. α-adrenergic blocker

A. combination of α-adrenergic blocker and 5α-reductase inhibitor

B. watchful waiting

C. TURP

D. . What is the commonest cause of LUTS in men beyond middle age?

What is the correct answer?

4

The most serious complication of TURP is:

A. damage to the internal sphincter

B. damage to the external sphincter

C. bladder perforation

D. damage to a ureteral orifice

What is the correct answer?

4

PSA value has a strong correlation with:

A. IPSS

B. post void residual

C. prostate volume

D. Q-max at uroflowmetry