Home
Current Affairs January 2024

What is the correct answer?

4

What is (are) the possible complication(s) of prostate stents?

A. hematuria and infections

B. migration and encrustation of the stent

C. irritative urinary symptoms and painful ejaculation

D. all of the above

Correct Answer :

D. all of the above


self-explanatory.

Related Questions

What is the correct answer?

4

Which statement(s) describe(s) the bladders response to an obstructing prostate?

A. it may develop detrusor instability with irritative LUTS

B. it may develop poor compliance with frequency and urgency symptoms

C. it may develop poor detrusor contractility with obstructive LUTS

D. all of the above

What is the correct answer?

4

as adjuncts therapy in BPH cases?

A. men with storage symptoms

B. men with ED

C. failed combination of α-adrenergic blocker and 5α-reductase inhibitor

D. a & b

What is the correct answer?

4

What class(es) of medications decrease(s) IPSS questionnaire points?

A. calcium channel blockers

B. antihistamines

C. antidepressants

D. cold medications containing pseudoephedrine

What is the correct answer?

4

What is true concerning epithelial and stromal cells in BPH?

A. there is an increase in the number of epithelial and stromal cells

B. there is an increase in the size of epithelial and stromal cells

C. in BPH, epithelial to stromal cells ratio is 1:2

D. all of the above

What is the correct answer?

4

Which statement is false concerning transurethral microwave therapy (TUMT) for BPH treatment:

A. induces nerve degeneration in the prostate and tissue necrosis

B. frequently results in transient urinary retention

C. frequently leads to erectile dysfunction

D. the high-energy platform is superior to the low-energy with regard to clinical efficacy

What is the correct answer?

4

PSA value has a strong correlation with:

A. IPSS

B. post void residual

C. prostate volume

D. Q-max at uroflowmetry

What is the correct answer?

4

a. α-adrenergic blocker

A. combination of α-adrenergic blocker and 5α-reductase inhibitor

B. watchful waiting

C. TURP

D. . What is the commonest cause of LUTS in men beyond middle age?

What is the correct answer?

4

What is false regarding BPH genetics?

A. BPH is an inheritable and progressive disease

B. familial BPH presents at an older age when compared to sporadic cases

C. approximately 90% of men in their 80s have histologic evidence of BPH

D. BPH tends to be more severe and progressive in black men when compared to whites

What is the correct answer?

4

What can NOT be assessed during DRE?

A. sacral cord integrity

B. pelvic hematoma

C. pelvic floor muscle tenderness

D. prostatic median lobe hypertrophy

What is the correct answer?

4

What is (are) the possible complication(s) of prostate stents?

A. hematuria and infections

B. migration and encrustation of the stent

C. irritative urinary symptoms and painful ejaculation

D. all of the above

What is the correct answer?

4

Which statement best describes the natural history of BPH:

A. worsening of LUTS and BPH over time

B. patients die of other reasons before serious complications occur

C. physically, the space of prostatic fossa limits the gland enlargement

D. ultimately, the gland will degenerate and undergo apoptosis

What is the correct answer?

4

What drug prevents recurrent gross hematuria secondary to BPH?

A. enoxaparin

B. silodosin

C. finasteride

D. tolterodine

What is the correct answer?

4

In men with obstructive BPH, what will NOT resolve after TURP?

A. bladder trabeculation

B. significant PVR

C. low peak flow rate

D. high IPSS

What is the correct answer?

4

Preferably, what is the last part of the prostate to be removed while performing TURP?

A. bladder neck

B. apex

C. median lobe

D. para-collecular

What is the correct answer?

4

What is true regarding BPH and androgens?

A. as a man ages, the responsiveness of prostate cells to androgenic stimuli decreases

B. adrenal androgens have no role in BPH development

C. type-1 steroid 5 α-reductase is functionally active in the hair follicle

D. all of the above

What is the correct answer?

4

BPH patients with severe irritative symptoms or microscopic hematuria should:

A. go for urine cytology testing

B. go for PSA testing

C. go for TRUS

D. use anticholinergic medication

What is the correct answer?

4

What is (are) the indication(s) to prescribe α-adrenergic inhibitors for BPH patients?

A. peak flow rate of ≤ 12 mL/sec

B. prostate volume > 40 ml

C. PSA > 1.5 ng/dL

D. b & c

What is the correct answer?

4

a. small fibrous glands

A. the presence of prostate cancer

B. previous prostatectomy

C. all of the above

D. . Robot-assisted laparoscopic prostatectomy for prostatic adenoma has the following advantage over TURP:

What is the correct answer?

4

Prostatic nodules palpated on DRE might indicate:

A. tuberculous prostatitis

B. prostatic cancer

C. inspissated prostatic abscess

D. any of the above

What is the correct answer?

4

Which statement is false regarding laser enucleation of the Prostate (HoLEP)?

A. provides tissue preservation for pathological examination

B. treats any size of prostatic adenoma

C. follows anatomic planes to remove the prostate in lobes

D. urinary incontinence is a significant drawback after HoLEP

What is the correct answer?

4

Smooth muscle tension in the prostate is mediated by which receptors?

A. α1-a

B. α1-b

C. α2-a

D. α2-b

What is the correct answer?

4

In BPH patients, follow up PSA is of value because:

A. it helps predict the response to 5α-reductase inhibitors

B. it monitors LUTS/BPH progression

C. BPH patients are at higher risk of developing prostate cancer

D. a & b

What is the correct answer?

4

A 50% reduction of prostate size is expected after a 6-month therapy with:

A. alfuzosin

B. silodosin

C. finasteride

D. tamsulosin

What is the correct answer?

4

An ED patient on low-dose tadalafil develops BPH. What medication should he avoid?

A. tamsulosin

B. alfuzosin

C. doxazosin

D. silodosin

What is the correct answer?

4

A BPH patient presents with retention of urine. He is Catheterized. Later, he underwent TURP. When would the highest PSA value be?

A. before catheterization

B. after catheterization and before TURP

C. immediately after TURP

D. 2 weeks after TURP

What is the correct answer?

4

a. urethral stricture

A. bladder stones

B. BPH

C. prostatitis syndrome

D. . What is (are) the indication(s) of antimuscarinic agents and PDEIs

What is the correct answer?

4

What is false concerning IPSS questionnaire?

A. is specific for prostate symptom

B. is a seven-question, self-administered questionnaire that yields a total score that ranges from 0 to 35

C. a sum of 20 on IPSS scale is severe

D. it covers both voiding and storage symptomatology

What is the correct answer?

4

The most serious complication of TURP is:

A. damage to the internal sphincter

B. damage to the external sphincter

C. bladder perforation

D. damage to a ureteral orifice

What is the correct answer?

4

What is true regarding the use of α-blockers and the development of Intraoperative Floppy Iris Syndrome (IFIS)?

A. complicates approximately 0.7% of cataract surgery cases

B. manifests as poor preoperative pupil dilation, iris prolapse, and progressive intraoperative miosis

C. it could persist long after the discontinuation of tamsulosin

D. intraoperative lidocaine reduces its incidence in patients taking α- adrenergic inhibitors

What is the correct answer?

4

c. each centimeter over the normal 2.5-cm prostate urethral length equates

A. an additional 15 g in prostate weight

B. each centimeter over the normal 1.5-cm prostate urethral length equates

C. an additional 5 g in prostate weight

D. . When comparing suprapubic to retropubic prostatectomy for removing prostatic adenoma, the former allows: