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4

In what kind of renal stones do antibiotics help most?

A. indinavir

B. magnesium ammonium phosphate

C. xanthine

D. matrix

Correct Answer :

B. magnesium ammonium phosphate


MAP (struvite) stones are infection stones that respond to antibiotics most.

Related Questions

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4

As per the fixed particle theory of stone formation:

A. the initial step is papillary plaque formation

B. crystals formation occurs inside the nephron

C. tubular precipitates form harmless crystalluria

D. the attraction of organic compounds and activation crystallization is regulated by osteopontin

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4

On treating uric acid stones, excessive alkalinization with potassium citrate could result in all of the following, EXCEPT:

A. formation of triple-phosphate stones

B. infection with Proteus species

C. increase production of endogenous uric acid

D. increase level of uric acid in THE blood

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4

Ureteral stones of ≥ 7 mm:

A. should be treated with more analgesics

B. must undergo metabolic worked out

C. are unlikely to pass out spontaneously

D. chemolysis should be tried first

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4

What is (are) the indication(s) of ureteral stenting before ESWL?

A. stones in a solitary kidney

B. ureteral stones causing bilateral obstructions

C. a kidney stone of ≥ 2.5 cm in size

D. all of the above

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4

What type of stones is soft, resilient, composed of mucoproteins of urine and serum?

A. matrix

B. indinavir

C. brushite

D. 2,8 dihydroxyadenine

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4

What is false concerning staghorn calculus?

A. commonly unilateral

B. commonly due to repeated infections

C. urate stones are the second most common cause of staghorn calculi

D. ESWL monotherapy with ureteral stenting is the ideal treatment

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4

What could high dietary protein result in?

A. increase urinary calcium, oxalate, and uric acid excretion

B. decrease urinary calcium; but increase oxalate, and uric acid excretion

C. increased urinary calcium and uric acid; but decrease oxalate excretion

D. decreased urinary calcium, oxalate, and uric acid excretion

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4

What is false concerning patient`s preparation for PCNL?

A. active UTI is an absolute contraindication

B. fluoroquinolone is the first choice for antimicrobial prophylaxis

C. withholding aspirin for only 10 days is enough

D. despite sterile urine, stone fragmentation might release hidden bacterial endotoxins and viable bacteria

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4

What parameter is NOT considered in the stone burden concept?

A. the surface area of the stones

B. the volume of the stones

C. the density of the stones

D. the number of the stones

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4

What is the preferred entry point into the collecting system for PCNL for a 2.4 cm renal pelvis stone?

A. anterior lower pole calyx

B. posterior lower pole calyx

C. anterior upper pole calyx

D. posterior upper pole calyx

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4

What could the discomfort experienced during ESWL session be related to?

A. the energy density of the shock waves as they pass through the skin

B. the size of the focal point

C. a & b

D. none of the above

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4

What stones are radiopaque on plain X-ray film?

A. 2,8 dihydroxyadenine stones

B. sulfa medications-induced stones

C. calcium oxalate stones

D. matrix stones

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4

What is the most important parameter that determines the treatment modality of a kidney stone?

A. stone chemical composition

B. stone burden

C. first stone vs. recurrent

D. stone density

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4

What is the unfavorable stone characteristic for a rigid URS treatment?

A. size of 5 mm

B. location at the lower calyx

C. density of 400 HU

D. being recurrent

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4

What is false regarding hypomagnesuric calcium nephrolithiasis?

A. it is characterized by low urinary magnesium and citrate

B. magnesium increases renal tubular citrate resorption

C. diarrheal is a remarkable side effect of magnesium therapy

D. potassium-magnesium preparations might restore urinary magnesium and citrate levels

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4

What medication(s) could be helpful in the management of cystinuria?

A. α-Mercaptopropionylglycine

B. d-Penicillamine

C. a & b

D. none of the above

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4

Which of the following dietary advice is recommended for Ca.oxalate stone formers?

A. limit beef, chicken, pork, eggs, fish, shellfish, and other animal proteins

B. limit beans, nuts, chocolate, coffee, dark green vegetables, and soda

C. limit canned, packaged, and fast foods

D. limit milk, cheese, and other dairy products

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4

What is the favorable stone characteristic for ESWL treatment?

A. 1000 - 1300 HU density

B. 5 - 10 mm diameter

C. lower calyx location

D. mid ureteral location

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4

What is the most favorable stone characteristics for laparoscopic and robotic approaches for the treatment of a kidney stone?

A. a stone in the lower calyx with a wide mouth of infundibulum and obtuse lower calyx to ureter angle

B. a stone in an anterior group calyceal diverticulum with thin overlying renal parenchyma

C. 5 mm calcium-containing stone in an intrarenal pelvis and wide UPJ

D. 6 years post anatrophic nephrolithotomy, recurrent mid calyceal stone

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4

What is false concerning obesity and urinary stone formation?

A. obese patients have a higher tendency for uric acid stone formation

B. high-protein, low-carbohydrate diet might increase the risk of stone formation and bone loss

C. metabolic syndrome is associated with high urinary pH

D. Roux-en-Y-gastric bypass surgery may increase the risk for stone formation

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4

Where do Randall plaques originate from?

A. transitional epithelium lining minor calyces

B. transitional epithelium lining major calyces

C. basement membrane of the loops of Henle

D. papillary tips of polar pyramids

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4

When urine reaches a high tendency to form stones, the situation is called:

A. lithogenic anion to cation ratio

B. Randall cut off

C. saturation index

D. solubility product

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4

What sequence of ureteral parts represents the most to least favorable stone response to ESWL treatment?

A. upper, lower, mid

B. lower, upper, mid

C. mid, upper, lower

D. mid, lower, upper

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4

What metabolic disturbances could result from renal tubular acidosis type I?

A. hypercalciuria and hypocitraturia

B. hypercalciuria and hypercitraturia

C. hypocalciuria and hypocitraturia

D. hypocalciuria and hypercitraturia

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4

What is true regarding a stone in a urethral diverticulum?

A. is symptomless

B. should undergo a trial of milking out

C. diverticulectomy and stone extraction is the treatment of choice

D. ESWL is the preferred treatment option

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4

What does NOT appear as a filling defect in the renal pelvis on IVU?

A. fungal ball

B. radiolucent stone

C. urothelial growth

D. upper end of DJ ureteral stent

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4

What is the incidence risk of ureteral strictures following ureteroscopy?

A. 3 6 %

B. 12 15 %

C. 0.4 0.8 %

D. 0.09 0.14 %

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4

What condition might NOT cause uric acid stones?

A. Tumor lysis syndrome

B. hypoparathyroidism

C. myeloproliferative disorder

D. Lesch-Nyhan syndrome

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4

What is false concerning PCNL in horseshoe kidneys?

A. the preferred access into the collecting system is through a posterior calyx

B. the posterior calyceal group is typically more medial than in the normal kidney

C. in most cases the lower pole calyces are posterior

D. it is desirable to make an upper pole collecting system puncture

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4

What does the treatment of hyperuricemia with urate stones include?

A. oral potassium sodium hydrogen citrate granules

B. increase hydration

C. allopurinol

D. all of the above