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Current Affairs January 2024

What is the correct answer?

4

What could the discomfort experienced during ESWL session be related to?

A. the energy density of the shock waves as they pass through the skin

B. the size of the focal point

C. a & b

D. none of the above

Correct Answer :

C. a & b


(a) and (b) are correct.

Related Questions

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4

What are the expected findings on urinalysis in patients with acute renal colic?

A. blood cells more than pus cells

B. pus cells if infection was superadded

C. crystals might appear

D. all of the above

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4

What is the immediate management of ureteral avulsion on retrieving an upper ureteral stone by a basket?

A. placement of a percutaneous nephrostomy drain

B. surgical exploration and primary repair

C. conservative management

D. endoscopic retrograde ureteral stenting

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4

How is primary oxaluria treated?

A. terminal ilium resection

B. liver transplantation

C. kidney transplantation

D. regular hemodialysis

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4

What does nephrocalcin do?

A. dissolves cystine stones

B. enhances nephrocalcinosis process over old scared areas

C. inhibits Ca.oxalate aggregation and crystallization

D. plays a secondary role in metastatic calcification process

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4

Which patient is at lowest risk for the development of perinephric hematoma after ESWL?

A. hypertensive patient

B. patient on aspirin withheld 5 days prior to ESWL

C. a stone in a scared poorly functioning kidney

D. ESWL every other day

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4

What is the fatality risk if a triple-phosphate staghorn stone left untreated?

A. 0 10%

B. 10 20%

C. 20 30%

D. 30 40%

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4

What could the discomfort experienced during ESWL session be related to?

A. the energy density of the shock waves as they pass through the skin

B. the size of the focal point

C. a & b

D. none of the above

What is the correct answer?

4

When should renal stone patients be evaluated for metabolic diseases?

A. when stones are multiple and/or recurrent

B. when stones form in childhood

C. in cases where nephrocalcinosis and urolithiasis are present

D. all of the above

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4

Which method of the following stone analysis techniques is based on the interaction of polarized light with the stone crystals?

A. wet chemical analysis

B. thermogravimetry

C. scanning electron microscopy

D. none of the above

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4

Worldwide, the commonest type of urinary stones is:

A. calcium monohydrate

B. calcium oxalate

C. ammonium urate

D. none of the above

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4

What is the most common organism that might complicate PCNL?

A. Proteus mirabilis

B. E. coli

C. Pseudomonas aeruginosa

D. Staphylococcus epidermidis

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4

What is (are) the indication(s) of ureteral stenting before ESWL?

A. stones in a solitary kidney

B. ureteral stones causing bilateral obstructions

C. a kidney stone of ≥ 2.5 cm in size

D. all of the above

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4

What is the least likely condition to form bladder stones?

A. spinal cord injury

B. senile enlargement of prostate

C. augmented bladder

D. neurogenic hyper-reflexive bladder

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4

What is the most important parameter that determines the treatment modality of a kidney stone?

A. stone chemical composition

B. stone burden

C. first stone vs. recurrent

D. stone density

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4

When urine reaches a high tendency to form stones, the situation is called:

A. lithogenic anion to cation ratio

B. Randall cut off

C. saturation index

D. solubility product

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4

What does the treatment of hyperuricemia with urate stones include?

A. oral potassium sodium hydrogen citrate granules

B. increase hydration

C. allopurinol

D. all of the above

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4

What does NOT appear as a filling defect in the renal pelvis on IVU?

A. fungal ball

B. radiolucent stone

C. urothelial growth

D. upper end of DJ ureteral stent

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4

What type of stones do laxative abusers might develop?

A. ammonium urate

B. sodium urate

C. calcium oxalate

D. calcium phosphate

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4

What is the first-line treatment of kidney stones of a burden greater than 2 cm?

A. ESWL

B. URS

C. PCNL

D. none of the above

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4

What is the preferred entry point into the collecting system for PCNL for a 2.4 cm renal pelvis stone?

A. anterior lower pole calyx

B. posterior lower pole calyx

C. anterior upper pole calyx

D. posterior upper pole calyx

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4

Which event is unlikely to occur after placing a DJ ureteral stent?

A. can be forgotten in place

B. vesico-renal reflux

C. calyceal perforation

D. detrusor irritability and/or hematuria

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4

What medication could help in managing carbonate apatite stones?

A. α-Mercaptopropionylglycine

B. acetohydroxamic acid

C. carbonic anhydrase inhibitors

D. xanthine oxidase inhibitors

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4

Patients having what kind of stones should refrain from eating purines?

A. cysteine

B. urate

C. calcium

D. none of the above

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4

What is false concerning obesity and urinary stone formation?

A. obese patients have a higher tendency for uric acid stone formation

B. high-protein, low-carbohydrate diet might increase the risk of stone formation and bone loss

C. metabolic syndrome is associated with high urinary pH

D. Roux-en-Y-gastric bypass surgery may increase the risk for stone formation

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4

What is the most appropriate antibiotic class for prophylaxis before urologic surgery?

A. aminoglycosides

B. macrolides

C. cephalosporins

D. fluoroquinolones

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4

What is true regarding prostatic stones?

A. they are multiple and small in size

B. usually, they are voided spontaneously

C. they, rarely, form large stones within the peripheral zone

D. contrast CT is the conventional method for diagnosis

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4

What congenital anomaly is unlikely to result in stone formation?

A. left ureterocele

B. bifid right renal pelvis

C. neurogenic bladder

D. bilateral UPJ stenosis

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4

What is the most common composition of ureteral stones?

A. Ca.phosphate

B. Ca.oxalate

C. Na.urate

D. struvite

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4

Which of the following dietary advice is recommended for Ca.oxalate stone formers?

A. limit beef, chicken, pork, eggs, fish, shellfish, and other animal proteins

B. limit beans, nuts, chocolate, coffee, dark green vegetables, and soda

C. limit canned, packaged, and fast foods

D. limit milk, cheese, and other dairy products

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4

What is false regarding DJ ureteral stents?

A. can be introduced from the bladder or kidney or any part of the ureter`s course

B. the standard adult size is 32 cm long, 4 mm calibre

C. might result in encrustations and ureteral obstruction

D. might result in ureteral dilation