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Current Affairs January 2024

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4

What does NOT appear as a filling defect in the renal pelvis on IVU?

A. fungal ball

B. radiolucent stone

C. urothelial growth

D. upper end of DJ ureteral stent

Correct Answer :

D. upper end of DJ ureteral stent


DJ stents are opaque.

Related Questions

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4

Which method of the following stone analysis techniques is based on the interaction of polarized light with the stone crystals?

A. wet chemical analysis

B. thermogravimetry

C. scanning electron microscopy

D. none of the above

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4

What is the incidence risk of ureteral strictures following ureteroscopy?

A. 3 6 %

B. 12 15 %

C. 0.4 0.8 %

D. 0.09 0.14 %

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4

What is (are) true concerning ESWL?

A. a stone is fragmented when the force of the shockwaves overcomes the tensile strength of the stone

B. fragmentation occurs as a result of compressive and tensile forces, erosion, shearing, spalling, and cavitation

C. the generation of compressive and tensile forces and cavitation are thought to be the most important

D. all of the above

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4

What is false concerning urethral stones?

A. stones at posterior urethra could be pushed back to the bladder

B. stones at anterior urethra have to undergo a trial of milking out, using copious intra-urethral xylocaine gel

C. often respond to a two-week course of tamsulosin

D. respond to Holmium laser treatment

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4

What is true concerning the use of intravenous fluids in renal colic cases?

A. patients should be given large amounts of fluids to hasten stones passage

B. fluids are given to keep the patient well hydrated

C. the recommended regimen is 2 L of ringer lactate over 2 hours

D. fluids are contraindicated if desmopressin (DDAVP) was given

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4

What is true concerning uric acid stones?

A. they are metabolic stones that form at high urinary pH

B. they score 800 1000 HU on CT

C. only 25% of affected patients have Gout disease

D. affected patients must stop eating animal protein

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4

Which of the following is a relative contra-indication to ESWL?

A. renal insufficiency

B. active urinary tract infection

C. uncorrected bleeding disorder

D. third trimester pregnancy

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4

During pyelolithotomy for removing a staghorn urate stone; how to ensure a complete removal of calyceal branches?

A. by performing intra-operative ultrasonography

B. by performing radial nephrotomies

C. by performing adjunct PCLN

D. by taking a scout KUB film

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4

What is a remarkable disadvantage of ultrasonic imaging for ESWL?

A. localization of stones in the ureter is difficult or impossible

B. inability to visualize stones breaking down in real time

C. c. patient`s position on ESWL table is uncomfortable

D. d. inability to visualize radiolucent stones

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4

What is the least likely condition to form bladder stones?

A. spinal cord injury

B. senile enlargement of prostate

C. augmented bladder

D. neurogenic hyper-reflexive bladder

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4

What is (are) the indication(s) of using DJ ureteral catheters?

A. to stent the ureter after ureteral surgery

B. to facilitate stone passage

C. after a tough ureteroscopy procedure

D. all of the above

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4

What is the treatment of choice for a 15 mm stone in the lower calyx with a narrow infundibulum?

A. ESWL

B. PCNL

C. radial nephrolithotomy

D. pyelolithotomy with ureteral stenting

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4

On treating uric acid stones, excessive alkalinization with potassium citrate could result in all of the following, EXCEPT:

A. formation of triple-phosphate stones

B. infection with Proteus species

C. increase production of endogenous uric acid

D. increase level of uric acid in THE blood

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4

What could the discomfort experienced during ESWL session be related to?

A. the energy density of the shock waves as they pass through the skin

B. the size of the focal point

C. a & b

D. none of the above

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4

What could high level of sulfate in 24-hr. urine collection mean?

A. dissolving homogenous nucleation

B. high tendency to form cystine sulfate stones

C. indicates the amount of dietary protein

D. post ESWL therapy

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4

What metabolic disturbances could result from renal tubular acidosis type I?

A. hypercalciuria and hypocitraturia

B. hypercalciuria and hypercitraturia

C. hypocalciuria and hypocitraturia

D. hypocalciuria and hypercitraturia

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4

What is false concerning cystine stones?

A. have diagnostic hexagonal crystals

B. dont respond to ESWL therapy

C. are highly soluble in water

D. inherited in an autosomal recessive fashion

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4

What medications do NOT cause renal stones?

A. ciprofloxacin

B. indinavir

C. thiazides

D. triamterene

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4

What could carry the least risk of colon injury during PCNL?

A. subcostal puncture performed during full expiration

B. previous open nephrolithotomy

C. access lateral to the posterior axillary line

D. horseshoe kidney

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4

A 24-hr urine collection of a recurrent Ca. oxalate stone former patient having Crohn`s disease might reveal:

A. high citrate, high oxalate

B. low citrate, low oxalate

C. high citrate, low oxalate

D. low citrate, high oxalate

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4

What is false concerning primary bladder stones?

A. commonly occur in patients with senile prostatic enlargement

B. common in children exposed to low-protein, low-phosphate diet

C. rarely recur after treatment

D. respond to ESWL

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4

What statement is false concerning the use of desmopressin (DDAVP) in renal colic patients?

A. it causes reduction in the mean intra-ureteral pressure

B. it reduces the pain of acute renal colic

C. it has a direct relaxing effect on the renal pelvis and ureteral musculature

D. it is indicated when stones are ≤ 4 mm in diameter

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4

Expectant therapy for ureteral stones is indicated when:

A. stone size of ≤ 4 mm

B. stone burden of ≥ 22 mm

C. there is a distal partial obstruction

D. the patient has end-stage renal failure

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4

What is the most common organism that might complicate PCNL?

A. Proteus mirabilis

B. E. coli

C. Pseudomonas aeruginosa

D. Staphylococcus epidermidis

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4

Where do Randall plaques originate from?

A. transitional epithelium lining minor calyces

B. transitional epithelium lining major calyces

C. basement membrane of the loops of Henle

D. papillary tips of polar pyramids

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4

What type of stones is soft, resilient, composed of mucoproteins of urine and serum?

A. matrix

B. indinavir

C. brushite

D. 2,8 dihydroxyadenine

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4

When should renal stone patients be evaluated for metabolic diseases?

A. when stones are multiple and/or recurrent

B. when stones form in childhood

C. in cases where nephrocalcinosis and urolithiasis are present

D. all of the above

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4

What does nephrocalcin do?

A. dissolves cystine stones

B. enhances nephrocalcinosis process over old scared areas

C. inhibits Ca.oxalate aggregation and crystallization

D. plays a secondary role in metastatic calcification process

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4

What is the principal defect in renal hypercalciuria?

A. impaired renal tubular calcium reabsorption

B. excessive glomerular leak of calcium

C. deficiency of the enzyme xanthine oxidase

D. hypercalcemia

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4

What parameter is NOT considered in the stone burden concept?

A. the surface area of the stones

B. the volume of the stones

C. the density of the stones

D. the number of the stones