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What is the correct answer?

4

What is false concerning PCNL in horseshoe kidneys?

A. the preferred access into the collecting system is through a posterior calyx

B. the posterior calyceal group is typically more medial than in the normal kidney

C. in most cases the lower pole calyces are posterior

D. it is desirable to make an upper pole collecting system puncture

Correct Answer :

C. in most cases the lower pole calyces are posterior


In most cases the lower pole calyces are anterior and inaccessible to PCNL.

Related Questions

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4

What is true concerning the use of intravenous fluids in renal colic cases?

A. patients should be given large amounts of fluids to hasten stones passage

B. fluids are given to keep the patient well hydrated

C. the recommended regimen is 2 L of ringer lactate over 2 hours

D. fluids are contraindicated if desmopressin (DDAVP) was given

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4

What is the most common composition of ureteral stones?

A. Ca.phosphate

B. Ca.oxalate

C. Na.urate

D. struvite

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4

A 24-hr urine collection of a recurrent Ca. oxalate stone former patient having Crohn`s disease might reveal:

A. high citrate, high oxalate

B. low citrate, low oxalate

C. high citrate, low oxalate

D. low citrate, high oxalate

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4

Which method of the following stone analysis techniques is based on the interaction of polarized light with the stone crystals?

A. wet chemical analysis

B. thermogravimetry

C. scanning electron microscopy

D. none of the above

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4

Which of the following factors, positively, affect lower calyceal stone clearance after ESWL?

A. short and wide infundibulum

B. large lower-pole infundibulo-pelvic angle

C. the adjunct usage of PCNL

D. all of the above

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4

In what kind of renal stones do antibiotics help most?

A. indinavir

B. magnesium ammonium phosphate

C. xanthine

D. matrix

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4

What is false concerning the use of antibiotics in stone patients?

A. they are mandatory when urine shows ≥ 10 WBCs/hpf in symptomatic patients

B. they aim at treating pyonephrosis and urosepsis

C. they should cover Escherichia coli and Staphylococcus, Enterobacter, Proteus, and Klebsiella species

D. All of the above

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4

What is false regarding DJ ureteral stents?

A. can be introduced from the bladder or kidney or any part of the ureter`s course

B. the standard adult size is 32 cm long, 4 mm calibre

C. might result in encrustations and ureteral obstruction

D. might result in ureteral dilation

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4

Where do Randall plaques originate from?

A. transitional epithelium lining minor calyces

B. transitional epithelium lining major calyces

C. basement membrane of the loops of Henle

D. papillary tips of polar pyramids

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4

Which of the following is a relative contra-indication to ESWL?

A. renal insufficiency

B. active urinary tract infection

C. uncorrected bleeding disorder

D. third trimester pregnancy

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4

During pyelolithotomy for removing a staghorn urate stone; how to ensure a complete removal of calyceal branches?

A. by performing intra-operative ultrasonography

B. by performing radial nephrotomies

C. by performing adjunct PCLN

D. by taking a scout KUB film

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4

What is false regarding hypomagnesuric calcium nephrolithiasis?

A. it is characterized by low urinary magnesium and citrate

B. magnesium increases renal tubular citrate resorption

C. diarrheal is a remarkable side effect of magnesium therapy

D. potassium-magnesium preparations might restore urinary magnesium and citrate levels

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4

What metabolic disturbances could result from renal tubular acidosis type I?

A. hypercalciuria and hypocitraturia

B. hypercalciuria and hypercitraturia

C. hypocalciuria and hypocitraturia

D. hypocalciuria and hypercitraturia

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4

Which of the following dietary advice is recommended for Ca.oxalate stone formers?

A. limit beef, chicken, pork, eggs, fish, shellfish, and other animal proteins

B. limit beans, nuts, chocolate, coffee, dark green vegetables, and soda

C. limit canned, packaged, and fast foods

D. limit milk, cheese, and other dairy products

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4

What could the discomfort experienced during ESWL session be related to?

A. the energy density of the shock waves as they pass through the skin

B. the size of the focal point

C. a & b

D. none of the above

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4

How can the effectiveness of ESWL treatment session be enhanced?

A. by ensuring optimal coupling of the patient to the lithotripter

B. by running the treatment at a slower rate (60 shocks/min)

C. by running the treatment with general anesthesia

D. by all of the above

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4

What is false concerning primary bladder stones?

A. commonly occur in patients with senile prostatic enlargement

B. common in children exposed to low-protein, low-phosphate diet

C. rarely recur after treatment

D. respond to ESWL

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4

What is the preferred drug for medical expulsive therapy for lower ureteral stones?

A. furosemide

B. tamsulosin

C. nifedipine

D. diclofenac

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4

What is the most favorable stone characteristic for PCNL treatment?

A. ≥ 2 cm diameter

B. upper calyx location

C. Na.urate composition

D. 600 - 800 HU density

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4

What is false concerning staghorn calculus?

A. commonly unilateral

B. commonly due to repeated infections

C. urate stones are the second most common cause of staghorn calculi

D. ESWL monotherapy with ureteral stenting is the ideal treatment

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4

What is (are) the indication(s) of ureteral stenting before ESWL?

A. stones in a solitary kidney

B. ureteral stones causing bilateral obstructions

C. a kidney stone of ≥ 2.5 cm in size

D. all of the above

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4

What is false concerning cystine stones?

A. have diagnostic hexagonal crystals

B. dont respond to ESWL therapy

C. are highly soluble in water

D. inherited in an autosomal recessive fashion

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4

What is the principal defect in renal hypercalciuria?

A. impaired renal tubular calcium reabsorption

B. excessive glomerular leak of calcium

C. deficiency of the enzyme xanthine oxidase

D. hypercalcemia

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4

What does the treatment of hyperuricemia with urate stones include?

A. oral potassium sodium hydrogen citrate granules

B. increase hydration

C. allopurinol

D. all of the above

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4

How does oral Mg.citrate inhibit Ca.oxalate stone formation?

A. by lowering urinary saturation of Ca.oxalate

B. by preventing heterogeneous nucleation of Ca.oxalate

C. by inhibiting spontaneous precipitation and agglomeration of Ca.oxalate

D. by all of the above

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4

What situation carries lower risk for lung injury during supracostal upper pole access for PCNL?

A. placing the patient in anti-Trendelenburg position

B. making the puncture under local anesthesia

C. injection Co2 gas to create a safety space under the diaphragm before puncturing

D. making the puncture during full expiration

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4

What is true concerning primary hyperparathyroidism and stone formation?

A. orthophosphates may have a role in the treatment

B. hyperparathyroidectomy and levothyroxine replacement is the optimum treatment

C. management includes Calcium chelating agent and repeat 24hr urine collection in 3 months

D. surgical excision of the adenoma(s) is the treatment of choice

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4

What is the fatality risk if a triple-phosphate staghorn stone left untreated?

A. 0 10%

B. 10 20%

C. 20 30%

D. 30 40%

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4

As per the fixed particle theory of stone formation:

A. the initial step is papillary plaque formation

B. crystals formation occurs inside the nephron

C. tubular precipitates form harmless crystalluria

D. the attraction of organic compounds and activation crystallization is regulated by osteopontin

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4

What risk factor(s) promote(s) stone formation?

A. dehydration

B. metabolic disorders

C. congenital anomalies

D. all of the above