Home
Current Affairs January 2024

What is the correct answer?

4

Regarding radiotherapy for prostate cancer, what is the lowest recommended dose for salvage therapy?

A. 54 Gy

B. 64 Gy

C. 74 Gy

D. 84 Gy

Correct Answer :

B. 64 Gy


as per the American Society for Therapeutic Radiation Oncology (ASTRO) guidelines, 64 Gy is the lowest recommended dose for salvage radiotherapy.

Related Questions

What is the correct answer?

4

Which PSA value interpretation is incorrect?

A. > 50% of men with PSA > 10 ng/mL have the disease beyond the prostate

B. pelvic lymph node involvement is found in PSA > 20 ng/mL

C. 70% of men with a PSA between 4 and 10 ng/mL have organ-confined disease

D. 80% of men with PSA < 4 ng/mL have organ-confined disease

What is the correct answer?

4

What is false concerning antiandrogen class of prostate cancer medications?

A. commonly used in combination with a GnRH agonist

B. less effective than medical or surgical castration

C. not recommended for localized prostate cancer

D. inhibits various cytochrome P-450 enzymes

What is the correct answer?

4

What is the major advantage of neoadjuvant androgen deprivation before radical prostatectomy on treating clinical stages (cT1-T2) prostate cancers?

A. reduces positive surgical margins

B. reduces local recurrence

C. has no proven advantage

D. reduces cardiac complications

What is the correct answer?

4

What if false concerning the prostate cancer marker PCA3?

A. entails a genetic analysis of cells in the voided urine

B. urine sample is collected after a firm massage of the prostate

C. helps screen patients who are at intermediate risk of cancer

D. helps avoid the inconvenience of prostate biopsy

What is the correct answer?

4

What is false concerning Gleason scoring system for prostate cancers?

A. ranges from 0 -10 based on a histologic evaluation of tumor specimens

B. based on the 2 most common histologic patterns

C. greatly relies on the skills and experience of the pathologist

D. a score of 7 indicates a moderate-grade or moderately differentiated tumor

What is the correct answer?

4

Solid lesions in the seminal vesicles are most likely to be a result of:

A. imperfect prostate biopsies

B. immature teratoma

C. schistosomiasis

D. liposarcoma

What is the correct answer?

4

What are the clinical parameters of tissue ablation achieved by cryotherapy for cancer cells destruction?

A. the number of freezing cycles

B. the lowest temperature achieved

C. the existence of regional heat sinks

D. all of the above

What is the correct answer?

4

Prostate-specific membrane antigen has been detected in:

A. the prostate gland only

B. the central nervous system, intestine, and the prostate

C. malignant ovarian cysts, skeletal muscles, and the prostate

D. thyroid glands, adrenals, and the prostate

What is the correct answer?

4

What is false concerning the interpretation of Gleason scoring system?

A. a low score means the cancer tissue is similar to normal prostate tissue

B. it indicates how likely the tumor will spread

C. the more cellular atypia observed the higher scoring will be

D. it relies only on the glandular architectural pattern

What is the correct answer?

4

Regarding radiotherapy for prostate cancer, what is the lowest recommended dose for salvage therapy?

A. 54 Gy

B. 64 Gy

C. 74 Gy

D. 84 Gy

What is the correct answer?

4

What fraction of men with a PSA value between 4 and 10 ng/mL has an organ-confined prostate cancer?

A.

B. ¼

C. ½

D.

What is the correct answer?

4

BPH patients on finasteride longer than 6 months are expected to have:

A. decreased t-PSA but increased f-PSA

B. decreased t-PSA but unaltered f-PSA

C. decreased t-PSA and decreased f-PSA

D. any of the above

What is the correct answer?

4

What are the possible complications of CO2 pneumoperitoneum during laparoscopic/robotic prostatectomy?

A. hypoxia and acidosis

B. tachycardia and tachypnea

C. bradycardia and hypotension

D. hypercarbia and oliguria

What is the correct answer?

4

What is the proper pre-treatment risk stratification of prostate cancer for a patient with T2a, PSA < 11 ng/mL, and no Gleason score > 6?

A. low risk

B. intermediate risk

C. high risk

D. data not adequate

What is the correct answer?

4

What is the likelihood that patients with positive surgical margins after radical prostatectomy will be cured for prostate cancer?

A. never

B. unlikely

C. likely

D. always

What is the correct answer?

4

In which of the following cases PSA testing is NOT indicated:

A. 72 yrs. man newly diagnosed BPH with normal DRE

B. 2 weeks post TURP for obstructing cancerous prostate

C. screening for prostate cancer in 75 yrs. old Caucasian man

D. 43 yrs. man with obstructive LUTS, who had a first-degree relative diagnosed with prostate cancer before age 65

What is the correct answer?

4

Partin tables are probability tables for the determination of pathologic stages of prostatic cancers based on:

A. preoperative clinical stage, PSA level, and Gleason sum

B. seminal vesicle invasion, lymph node metastases, and Gleason sum

C. positive surgical margins, capsular penetration, and PSA level

D. PSA level, perineural invasion, vascular metastasis, and Gleason sum

What is the correct answer?

4

What class of prostate cancer medications causes an initial increase in LH, FSH levels and consequently a rise in testosterone level for few weeks?

A. GnRH agonists

B. antiandrogens

C. antimicrotubular

D. bisphosphonates

What is the correct answer?

4

Regarding chemotherapy for prostate cancers, nonsteroidal antiandrogens will result in:

A. elevated LH, elevated testosterone, elevated estrogen

B. elevated LH, elevated testosterone, declined estrogen

C. declined LH, declined testosterone, elevated estrogen

D. declined LH, elevated testosterone, declined estrogen

What is the correct answer?

4

Regarding treating prostate cancer patients, watchful waiting is a reasonable option for:

A. patients who have a life expectancy ≤ 10 yrs. and/or well to moderately differentiated cancer

B. ≥ 70 yrs. of age

C. PSA < 10 ng/mL, ratio < 0.22

D. patients with good performance status

What is the correct answer?

4

Regarding radical prostatectomy, the commonest site of positive surgical margins is the:

A. apex

B. posterior

C. postero-lateral

D. anterior

What is the correct answer?

4

During retropubic radical prostatectomy, what complication could be encountered on dividing the dorsal vein complex anteriorly?

A. incontinence

B. retrograde ejaculation

C. impotence

D. anejaculation

What is the correct answer?

4

In which of the following situations prostate biopsy is most indicated?

A. normal DRE, abnormal PSA

B. abnormal DRE, abnormal PSA

C. abnormal DRE, normal PSA

D. hyperechoic areas on TRUS

What is the correct answer?

4

Genetically, what are the changes associated with poor survival in prostate cancer patients?

A. loss of one or both copies of the tumor suppressor gene PTEN

B. TMPRSS2ERG chromosome fusion

C. P53 mutations and overexpression of MYC

D. all of the above

What is the correct answer?

4

For prostate cancer patients, what do Partin tables predict?

A. survival rate

B. pathologic stage

C. extracapsular extension

D. lymph node involvement

What is the correct answer?

4

In which of the following PSA readings prostate cancer is least suspected?

A. PSA velocity of 0.35 ng/mL/y, when the PSA is ≤ 2.5 ng/mL

B. PSA velocity of 0.75 ng/mL/y, when the PSA is 4 10 ng/mL

C. t-PSA is 2.8 ng/mL, f-PSA 0.94 ng/mL

D. t-PSA is 3.7 ng/mL, f-PSA 0.51 ng/mL

What is the correct answer?

4

What is the first-line chemotherapeutic agent for metastatic castration-resistant prostate cancer?

A. bisphosphonate

B. docetaxel

C. sipuleucel-T

D. enzalutamide

What is the correct answer?

4

What is the primary mechanism of prostate tissue ablation using high-intensity focused ultrasound?

A. disruption of protein synthesis

B. coagulative necrosis

C. cell wall destruction

D. DNA damage

What is the correct answer?

4

What is true concerning TRUS prostatic biopsy?

A. hematospermia might persist for 4 6 weeks after taking biopsies

B. quinolone antibiotics prophylaxis eliminate possible infections

C. the right lateral decubitus position is commonly preferred

D. only hypoechoic lesions should be biopsied

What is the correct answer?

4

What is against using TRUS-guided therapy for focal prostate cancer?

A. it overdiagnoses clinically insignificant cancers

B. it misses clinically significant cancers in the anterior or apical regions

C. it may underrepresent true cancer burden

D. all of the above