Home
Current Affairs January 2024

What is the correct answer?

4

What if false concerning the prostate cancer marker PCA3?

A. entails a genetic analysis of cells in the voided urine

B. urine sample is collected after a firm massage of the prostate

C. helps screen patients who are at intermediate risk of cancer

D. helps avoid the inconvenience of prostate biopsy

Correct Answer :

C. helps screen patients who are at intermediate risk of cancer


PCA3 is not for screening.

Related Questions

What is the correct answer?

4

What is false concerning thawing procedure to treat prostate cancer cells?

A. slow thawing is more effective than rapid thawing

B. the most common complication is erectile dysfunction

C. for effective thawing a minimum temperature of − 25° C and a double freeze/thaw cycle with urethral warming are recommended

D. the two most common modalities employed in focal therapy are highintensity focused ultrasound and cryosurgery

What is the correct answer?

4

Regarding treating prostate cancer patients, watchful waiting strategy involves:

A. periodic PSA testing

B. periodic TRUS

C. all of the above

D. none of the above

What is the correct answer?

4

Regarding radiotherapy for prostate cancer, what is the lowest recommended dose for salvage therapy?

A. 54 Gy

B. 64 Gy

C. 74 Gy

D. 84 Gy

What is the correct answer?

4

In which of the following situations prostate biopsy is most indicated?

A. normal DRE, abnormal PSA

B. abnormal DRE, abnormal PSA

C. abnormal DRE, normal PSA

D. hyperechoic areas on TRUS

What is the correct answer?

4

Partin tables are probability tables for the determination of pathologic stages of prostatic cancers based on:

A. preoperative clinical stage, PSA level, and Gleason sum

B. seminal vesicle invasion, lymph node metastases, and Gleason sum

C. positive surgical margins, capsular penetration, and PSA level

D. PSA level, perineural invasion, vascular metastasis, and Gleason sum

What is the correct answer?

4

Prostate-specific membrane antigen has been detected in:

A. the prostate gland only

B. the central nervous system, intestine, and the prostate

C. malignant ovarian cysts, skeletal muscles, and the prostate

D. thyroid glands, adrenals, and the prostate

What is the correct answer?

4

Clinically significant prostate cancer is defined as:

A. volume ≥ 0.5 mL and/or a Gleason score of ≥ 3 + 4

B. volume ≥ 0.8 mL and/or a Gleason score of ≥ 4 + 4

C. volume ≥ 1.5 mL and/or a Gleason score of ≥ 4 + 3

D. volume ≥ 1.0 mL and/or a Gleason score of ≥ 3 + 3

What is the correct answer?

4

For prostate cancer patients, what do Partin tables predict?

A. survival rate

B. pathologic stage

C. extracapsular extension

D. lymph node involvement

What is the correct answer?

4

Solid lesions in the seminal vesicles are most likely to be a result of:

A. imperfect prostate biopsies

B. immature teratoma

C. schistosomiasis

D. liposarcoma

What is the correct answer?

4

What is against using TRUS-guided therapy for focal prostate cancer?

A. it overdiagnoses clinically insignificant cancers

B. it misses clinically significant cancers in the anterior or apical regions

C. it may underrepresent true cancer burden

D. all of the above

What is the correct answer?

4

Fill the blanks: on treating prostate cancer patients, the median time from PSA failure to the development of metastatic disease after radical prostatectomy is approximately (…) yrs. and from the time of metastases to death is approximately (…) yrs..

A. 4, 2 respectively

B. 8, 5 respectively

C. 6, 3 respectively

D. 7, 4 respectively

What is the correct answer?

4

What is false concerning prostate cancer?

A. the most common cause of mortality in men with prostate cancer is cardiac disease

B. is the second most common cause of cancer death in males

C. androgens have a pivotal role in prostate cancer development

D. low protein and high carbohydrate diet play a role in the development of prostate cancer

What is the correct answer?

4

In which of the following cases PSA testing is NOT indicated:

A. 72 yrs. man newly diagnosed BPH with normal DRE

B. 2 weeks post TURP for obstructing cancerous prostate

C. screening for prostate cancer in 75 yrs. old Caucasian man

D. 43 yrs. man with obstructive LUTS, who had a first-degree relative diagnosed with prostate cancer before age 65

What is the correct answer?

4

Following bilateral orchiectomy for prostate cancer, testosterone will:

A. initially drop to nadir, and then recover over 2 weeks

B. decline by 50% within 2 weeks and then normalize

C. decline by 90% within 24 hours

D. decline by 70%

What is the correct answer?

4

Genetically, increased risk of prostate cancer has been found in men with:

A. variants in the 8q24 region on chromosome 8, in sporadic cases

B. alterations on chromosome 1, chromosome 17, and the X chromosome, in some familial cases

C. the human prostate cancer gene is on the X chromosome

D. all are true

What is the correct answer?

4

Regarding radical prostatectomy, the commonest site of positive surgical margins is the:

A. apex

B. posterior

C. postero-lateral

D. anterior

What is the correct answer?

4

What are the clinical parameters of tissue ablation achieved by cryotherapy for cancer cells destruction?

A. the number of freezing cycles

B. the lowest temperature achieved

C. the existence of regional heat sinks

D. all of the above

What is the correct answer?

4

BPH patients on finasteride longer than 6 months are expected to have:

A. decreased t-PSA but increased f-PSA

B. decreased t-PSA but unaltered f-PSA

C. decreased t-PSA and decreased f-PSA

D. any of the above

What is the correct answer?

4

What is true regarding prostatic tissue levels of hK2?

A. intensely expressed in benign prostatic epithelium

B. increased in poorly differentiated prostate cancer tissue

C. helps differentiate benign from malignant causes of high t-PSA

D. is an organ but not pathology specific marker

What is the correct answer?

4

What is the first-line chemotherapeutic agent for metastatic castration-resistant prostate cancer?

A. bisphosphonate

B. docetaxel

C. sipuleucel-T

D. enzalutamide

What is the correct answer?

4

What is the major advantage of neoadjuvant androgen deprivation before radical prostatectomy on treating clinical stages (cT1-T2) prostate cancers?

A. reduces positive surgical margins

B. reduces local recurrence

C. has no proven advantage

D. reduces cardiac complications

What is the correct answer?

4

What fraction of men with a PSA value between 4 and 10 ng/mL has an organ-confined prostate cancer?

A.

B. ¼

C. ½

D.

What is the correct answer?

4

What is true about the usefulness of Gleason scoring system?

A. used to stage prostate cancer

B. a specimen of grade 3 + 4 is worse than 4 + 3

C. a sum of 6 suggests an intermediate risk for aggressive cancer

D. it has a role in guiding the appropriate treatment options

What is the correct answer?

4

What is false regarding the diagnosis of prostate cancer?

A. most cases are identified by screening asymptomatic men

B. physical examination alone cannot reliably differentiate benign prostatic conditions from cancer

C. most diagnosed cases have normal DRE and PSA values

D. prostate biopsy establishes the diagnosis

What is the correct answer?

4

What are the possible complications of CO2 pneumoperitoneum during laparoscopic/robotic prostatectomy?

A. hypoxia and acidosis

B. tachycardia and tachypnea

C. bradycardia and hypotension

D. hypercarbia and oliguria

What is the correct answer?

4

What is true concerning TRUS prostatic biopsy?

A. hematospermia might persist for 4 6 weeks after taking biopsies

B. quinolone antibiotics prophylaxis eliminate possible infections

C. the right lateral decubitus position is commonly preferred

D. only hypoechoic lesions should be biopsied

What is the correct answer?

4

What is true regarding seminal vesicles` involvement in prostate cancer?

A. is almost always due to direct extension (T2c)

B. it is involved in 85% of positive surgical margins following radical prostatectomy

C. it carries a poor prognosis

D. none of the above

What is the correct answer?

4

In descending order, to where do prostate cancers metastasize?

A. lymph nodes, bone, lung, bladder, liver, and adrenal glands

B. bone, lung, lymph nodes, liver, bladder, and adrenal glands

C. lung, liver, lymph nodes, bone, adrenal glands, and bladder

D. liver, lung, bone, lymph nodes, bladder, and adrenal glands

What is the correct answer?

4

Which factor(s) determine(s) the return to normal erectile function after radical retropubic prostatectomy?

A. the age of the patient

B. preoperative potency status

C. extent of nerve-sparing surgery

D. all of the above

What is the correct answer?

4

In which of the following PSA readings prostate cancer is least suspected?

A. PSA velocity of 0.35 ng/mL/y, when the PSA is ≤ 2.5 ng/mL

B. PSA velocity of 0.75 ng/mL/y, when the PSA is 4 10 ng/mL

C. t-PSA is 2.8 ng/mL, f-PSA 0.94 ng/mL

D. t-PSA is 3.7 ng/mL, f-PSA 0.51 ng/mL