Home
Current Affairs January 2024

What is the correct answer?

4

In which of the following PSA readings prostate cancer is least suspected?

A. PSA velocity of 0.35 ng/mL/y, when the PSA is ≤ 2.5 ng/mL

B. PSA velocity of 0.75 ng/mL/y, when the PSA is 4 10 ng/mL

C. t-PSA is 2.8 ng/mL, f-PSA 0.94 ng/mL

D. t-PSA is 3.7 ng/mL, f-PSA 0.51 ng/mL

Correct Answer :

C. t-PSA is 2.8 ng/mL, f-PSA 0.94 ng/mL


PSA ratio, in this case, is 33% which is on the benign side.

Related Questions

What is the correct answer?

4

What is true regarding prostatic tissue levels of hK2?

A. intensely expressed in benign prostatic epithelium

B. increased in poorly differentiated prostate cancer tissue

C. helps differentiate benign from malignant causes of high t-PSA

D. is an organ but not pathology specific marker

What is the correct answer?

4

What are the possible complications of CO2 pneumoperitoneum during laparoscopic/robotic prostatectomy?

A. hypoxia and acidosis

B. tachycardia and tachypnea

C. bradycardia and hypotension

D. hypercarbia and oliguria

What is the correct answer?

4

What is false regarding the histology of prostatic cancers?

A. benign glands are different from malignant glands, as they contain basal cells

B. adenosis in the transitional zone carries 15% increase in cancer risk

C. the prostate has no discrete histologic capsule

D. intraductal carcinoma is morphologically worse than high-grade PIN and is typically associated with high-grade carcinoma

What is the correct answer?

4

Fill the blanks: on treating prostate cancer patients, the median time from PSA failure to the development of metastatic disease after radical prostatectomy is approximately (…) yrs. and from the time of metastases to death is approximately (…) yrs..

A. 4, 2 respectively

B. 8, 5 respectively

C. 6, 3 respectively

D. 7, 4 respectively

What is the correct answer?

4

Prostate-specific membrane antigen has been detected in:

A. the prostate gland only

B. the central nervous system, intestine, and the prostate

C. malignant ovarian cysts, skeletal muscles, and the prostate

D. thyroid glands, adrenals, and the prostate

What is the correct answer?

4

Regarding chemotherapy for prostate cancers, nonsteroidal antiandrogens will result in:

A. elevated LH, elevated testosterone, elevated estrogen

B. elevated LH, elevated testosterone, declined estrogen

C. declined LH, declined testosterone, elevated estrogen

D. declined LH, elevated testosterone, declined estrogen

What is the correct answer?

4

Regarding radiotherapy for prostate cancer, what is the lowest recommended dose for salvage therapy?

A. 54 Gy

B. 64 Gy

C. 74 Gy

D. 84 Gy

What is the correct answer?

4

Which factor is closely related to the return to urinary continence function after radical retropubic prostatectomy?

A. pathologic tumor stage

B. performing nerve-sparing surgery

C. patient`s age

D. performing internal sphincter micro-dissection

What is the correct answer?

4

What is false regarding prostate adenocarcinoma in the peripheral zone?

A. 85% of prostate adenocarcinomas are located in the peripheral zone

B. 15% of them are multifocal

C. they tend to extend outside the prostate through the perineural space

D. the presence of perineural invasion does not worsen the prognosis

What is the correct answer?

4

What is false concerning Gleason scoring system for prostate cancers?

A. ranges from 0 -10 based on a histologic evaluation of tumor specimens

B. based on the 2 most common histologic patterns

C. greatly relies on the skills and experience of the pathologist

D. a score of 7 indicates a moderate-grade or moderately differentiated tumor

What is the correct answer?

4

What is the major advantage of neoadjuvant androgen deprivation before radical prostatectomy on treating clinical stages (cT1-T2) prostate cancers?

A. reduces positive surgical margins

B. reduces local recurrence

C. has no proven advantage

D. reduces cardiac complications

What is the correct answer?

4

Regarding treating prostate cancer patients, watchful waiting strategy involves:

A. periodic PSA testing

B. periodic TRUS

C. all of the above

D. none of the above

What is the correct answer?

4

What is the primary mechanism of prostate tissue ablation using high-intensity focused ultrasound?

A. disruption of protein synthesis

B. coagulative necrosis

C. cell wall destruction

D. DNA damage

What is the correct answer?

4

Screening for prostate cancer is recommended for men who are:

A. at average risk, aging 50 yrs., and have at least a 10-year life expectancy

B. aging 40 yrs., and had a first-degree relative diagnosed with prostate cancer before age 65

C. aging 40 yrs., African Americans

D. all of the above

What is the correct answer?

4

What is against using TRUS-guided therapy for focal prostate cancer?

A. it overdiagnoses clinically insignificant cancers

B. it misses clinically significant cancers in the anterior or apical regions

C. it may underrepresent true cancer burden

D. all of the above

What is the correct answer?

4

What is false concerning the interpretation of Gleason scoring system?

A. a low score means the cancer tissue is similar to normal prostate tissue

B. it indicates how likely the tumor will spread

C. the more cellular atypia observed the higher scoring will be

D. it relies only on the glandular architectural pattern

What is the correct answer?

4

What is the proper pre-treatment risk stratification of prostate cancer for a patient with T2a, PSA < 11 ng/mL, and no Gleason score > 6?

A. low risk

B. intermediate risk

C. high risk

D. data not adequate

What is the correct answer?

4

What if false concerning the prostate cancer marker PCA3?

A. entails a genetic analysis of cells in the voided urine

B. urine sample is collected after a firm massage of the prostate

C. helps screen patients who are at intermediate risk of cancer

D. helps avoid the inconvenience of prostate biopsy

What is the correct answer?

4

Solid lesions in the seminal vesicles are most likely to be a result of:

A. imperfect prostate biopsies

B. immature teratoma

C. schistosomiasis

D. liposarcoma

What is the correct answer?

4

In which of the following cases PSA testing is NOT indicated:

A. 72 yrs. man newly diagnosed BPH with normal DRE

B. 2 weeks post TURP for obstructing cancerous prostate

C. screening for prostate cancer in 75 yrs. old Caucasian man

D. 43 yrs. man with obstructive LUTS, who had a first-degree relative diagnosed with prostate cancer before age 65

What is the correct answer?

4

During retropubic radical prostatectomy, what complication could be encountered on dividing the dorsal vein complex anteriorly?

A. incontinence

B. retrograde ejaculation

C. impotence

D. anejaculation

What is the correct answer?

4

What is false concerning TRUS prostatic biopsy?

A. a 12-core biopsy is the standard

B. in preparation for the procedure, a self-administered enema is suggested

C. sepsis might complicate the procedure

D. the biopsy path is best visualized in the coronal plane

What is the correct answer?

4

What is the first-line chemotherapeutic agent for metastatic castration-resistant prostate cancer?

A. bisphosphonate

B. docetaxel

C. sipuleucel-T

D. enzalutamide

What is the correct answer?

4

Clinically significant prostate cancer is defined as:

A. volume ≥ 0.5 mL and/or a Gleason score of ≥ 3 + 4

B. volume ≥ 0.8 mL and/or a Gleason score of ≥ 4 + 4

C. volume ≥ 1.5 mL and/or a Gleason score of ≥ 4 + 3

D. volume ≥ 1.0 mL and/or a Gleason score of ≥ 3 + 3

What is the correct answer?

4

Genetically, what are the changes associated with poor survival in prostate cancer patients?

A. loss of one or both copies of the tumor suppressor gene PTEN

B. TMPRSS2ERG chromosome fusion

C. P53 mutations and overexpression of MYC

D. all of the above

What is the correct answer?

4

What is false concerning prostate cancer?

A. the most common cause of mortality in men with prostate cancer is cardiac disease

B. is the second most common cause of cancer death in males

C. androgens have a pivotal role in prostate cancer development

D. low protein and high carbohydrate diet play a role in the development of prostate cancer

What is the correct answer?

4

In descending order, the commonest complications of external beam radiation therapy for prostate cancer are:

A. urethral stricture, impotence, and rectal bleeding

B. impotence, rectal bleeding, and urethral stricture

C. impotence, urethral stricture, and rectal bleeding

D. rectal bleeding, impotence, and urethral stricture

What is the correct answer?

4

What is false regarding the diagnosis of prostate cancer?

A. most cases are identified by screening asymptomatic men

B. physical examination alone cannot reliably differentiate benign prostatic conditions from cancer

C. most diagnosed cases have normal DRE and PSA values

D. prostate biopsy establishes the diagnosis

What is the correct answer?

4

Which factor(s) determine(s) the return to normal erectile function after radical retropubic prostatectomy?

A. the age of the patient

B. preoperative potency status

C. extent of nerve-sparing surgery

D. all of the above

What is the correct answer?

4

What is true surrounding PSA?

A. black individuals produce more PSA than whites

B. ejaculation can lead to a false decrease in PSA

C. pro-PSA is the serum proactive form of PSA molecule

D. prostate cancer cells make more PSA than normal prostate tissues do