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What is the correct answer?

4

Expectant therapy for ureteral stones is indicated when:

A. stone size of ≤ 4 mm

B. stone burden of ≥ 22 mm

C. there is a distal partial obstruction

D. the patient has end-stage renal failure

Correct Answer :

A. stone size of ≤ 4 mm


the majority of ureteral stones of 4 mm or less will pass spontaneously.

Related Questions

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4

What type of stones do laxative abusers might develop?

A. ammonium urate

B. sodium urate

C. calcium oxalate

D. calcium phosphate

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4

What is the most common organism that might complicate PCNL?

A. Proteus mirabilis

B. E. coli

C. Pseudomonas aeruginosa

D. Staphylococcus epidermidis

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4

What could high level of sulfate in 24-hr. urine collection mean?

A. dissolving homogenous nucleation

B. high tendency to form cystine sulfate stones

C. indicates the amount of dietary protein

D. post ESWL therapy

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4

What does the treatment of hyperuricemia with urate stones include?

A. oral potassium sodium hydrogen citrate granules

B. increase hydration

C. allopurinol

D. all of the above

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4

What medication(s) could be helpful in the management of cystinuria?

A. α-Mercaptopropionylglycine

B. d-Penicillamine

C. a & b

D. none of the above

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4

What is true regarding prostatic stones?

A. they are multiple and small in size

B. usually, they are voided spontaneously

C. they, rarely, form large stones within the peripheral zone

D. contrast CT is the conventional method for diagnosis

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4

What is the incidence risk of ureteral strictures following ureteroscopy?

A. 3 6 %

B. 12 15 %

C. 0.4 0.8 %

D. 0.09 0.14 %

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4

Which of the following is a relative contra-indication to ESWL?

A. renal insufficiency

B. active urinary tract infection

C. uncorrected bleeding disorder

D. third trimester pregnancy

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4

What is false concerning cystine stones?

A. have diagnostic hexagonal crystals

B. dont respond to ESWL therapy

C. are highly soluble in water

D. inherited in an autosomal recessive fashion

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4

Two weeks of prolonged wound drainage after a non-stented Anderson-Hynes pyeloplasty. What would be next step in the management?

A. watchful waiting

B. open surgical correction

C. IVU with possible endoscopic ureteral stenting

D. perc. nephrostomy tube insertion

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4

What is true concerning uric acid stones?

A. they are metabolic stones that form at high urinary pH

B. they score 800 1000 HU on CT

C. only 25% of affected patients have Gout disease

D. affected patients must stop eating animal protein

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4

What is false concerning neonatal nephrolithiasis?

A. frequently caused by loop diuretics

B. stones are often radiolucent

C. may be reversed by the use of thiazides

D. low calcium-to-creatinine ratio predicts stones resolution

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4

What is true regarding a stone in a urethral diverticulum?

A. is symptomless

B. should undergo a trial of milking out

C. diverticulectomy and stone extraction is the treatment of choice

D. ESWL is the preferred treatment option

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4

What is false concerning patient`s preparation for PCNL?

A. active UTI is an absolute contraindication

B. fluoroquinolone is the first choice for antimicrobial prophylaxis

C. withholding aspirin for only 10 days is enough

D. despite sterile urine, stone fragmentation might release hidden bacterial endotoxins and viable bacteria

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4

Expectant therapy for ureteral stones is indicated when:

A. stone size of ≤ 4 mm

B. stone burden of ≥ 22 mm

C. there is a distal partial obstruction

D. the patient has end-stage renal failure

What is the correct answer?

4

Which of the following dietary advice is recommended for Ca.oxalate stone formers?

A. limit beef, chicken, pork, eggs, fish, shellfish, and other animal proteins

B. limit beans, nuts, chocolate, coffee, dark green vegetables, and soda

C. limit canned, packaged, and fast foods

D. limit milk, cheese, and other dairy products

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4

Ureteral stones of ≥ 7 mm:

A. should be treated with more analgesics

B. must undergo metabolic worked out

C. are unlikely to pass out spontaneously

D. chemolysis should be tried first

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4

What is true regarding DJ ureteral stents?

A. can be placed through perc. nephrostomy

B. might slip out, especially in females

C. usually radiopaque

D. all of the above

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4

What is false concerning primary bladder stones?

A. commonly occur in patients with senile prostatic enlargement

B. common in children exposed to low-protein, low-phosphate diet

C. rarely recur after treatment

D. respond to ESWL

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4

ESWL in pediatric patients is characterized by all of the following, EXCEPT:

A. often need sedation or anesthesia

B. vesico-ureteral reflux must be excluded

C. pediatrics have a higher clearance rate of stones when compared to adults

D. safety measures must be taken to avoid lung contusions

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4

What type of urinary diversion carries the highest risk of stone formation?

A. Kock pouch

B. Neobladder-to-urethra diversion

C. Florida pouch

D. Indiana pouch

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4

What kind of stones is more likely to recur with infections if not removed completely?

A. urate

B. triple phosphate

C. oxalate monohydrate

D. matrix

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4

On treating uric acid stones, excessive alkalinization with potassium citrate could result in all of the following, EXCEPT:

A. formation of triple-phosphate stones

B. infection with Proteus species

C. increase production of endogenous uric acid

D. increase level of uric acid in THE blood

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4

What is false concerning struvite stones?

A. the commonest to form staghorn giant calculi

B. formed by urease producing bacteria

C. antibiotics have a role in the treatment

D. form at the two extremes of urinary pH range

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4

What is false regarding DJ ureteral stents?

A. can be introduced from the bladder or kidney or any part of the ureter`s course

B. the standard adult size is 32 cm long, 4 mm calibre

C. might result in encrustations and ureteral obstruction

D. might result in ureteral dilation

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4

What situation carries lower risk for lung injury during supracostal upper pole access for PCNL?

A. placing the patient in anti-Trendelenburg position

B. making the puncture under local anesthesia

C. injection Co2 gas to create a safety space under the diaphragm before puncturing

D. making the puncture during full expiration

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4

What is the most favorable stone characteristics for laparoscopic and robotic approaches for the treatment of a kidney stone?

A. a stone in the lower calyx with a wide mouth of infundibulum and obtuse lower calyx to ureter angle

B. a stone in an anterior group calyceal diverticulum with thin overlying renal parenchyma

C. 5 mm calcium-containing stone in an intrarenal pelvis and wide UPJ

D. 6 years post anatrophic nephrolithotomy, recurrent mid calyceal stone

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4

What congenital anomaly is unlikely to result in stone formation?

A. left ureterocele

B. bifid right renal pelvis

C. neurogenic bladder

D. bilateral UPJ stenosis

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4

What is the fatality risk if a triple-phosphate staghorn stone left untreated?

A. 0 10%

B. 10 20%

C. 20 30%

D. 30 40%

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4

What is false concerning staghorn calculus?

A. commonly unilateral

B. commonly due to repeated infections

C. urate stones are the second most common cause of staghorn calculi

D. ESWL monotherapy with ureteral stenting is the ideal treatment