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4

What is true regarding mirabegron, the β3 agonist, in treating BPH?

A. achieves better results when combined with antimuscarinic

B. enhances detrusor contractility resulting in higher Q-max

C. enhance detrusor relaxation during bladder-filling phase

D. increases voiding pressure that poses risk on renal function

Correct Answer :

C. enhance detrusor relaxation during bladder-filling phase


as per the REDUCE study, dutasteride reduces the incidence of prostate cancer by 23% with a small increase in high-grade tumor incidence.

Related Questions

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4

Which drug reduces the incidence of prostate cancer by 23% with a small increase in high-grade tumor incidence?

A. cetrorelix

B. flutamide

C. dutasteride

D. zanoterone

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4

a. no risk of dilutional hyponatremia

A. operating on patients with multiple bladder diverticula

B. operating on patients who cannot flex their hips and/or knees

C. unfavorable tissue preservation for pathological examination

D. . What is (are) the contraindication(s) to open prostatectomy for prostatic adenoma?

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4

How to manage priapism that occurs during endoscopic surgery?

A. corporal aspiration

B. corpora injection with an α-adrenergic agent

C. corpora injection with an α-adrenergic blocker

D. no treatment required

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4

Prostatic nodules palpated on DRE might indicate:

A. tuberculous prostatitis

B. prostatic cancer

C. inspissated prostatic abscess

D. any of the above

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4

What is the likelihood that PSA level in men with acute urinary retention due to urethral stricture will decrease after catheterization?

A. never

B. unlikely

C. likely

D. always

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4

a. management of concomitant Hutch diverticulum

A. removing small bladder stones

B. better access to prostatic fossa

C. technically, easier trigonization

D. . When comparing retropubic to suprapubic prostatectomy for removing prostatic adenoma, the former has the advantage of:

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4

The lowest re-treatment rate of BPH is for:

A. TUIP

B. TURP

C. HoLEP

D. HoLRP

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4

Open prostatectomy is preferred in treating BPH with:

A. sizable bladder stones

B. Hutch diverticulum

C. a suspicion of cancer

D. a & b

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4

What is (are) true concerning IPSS questionnaire?

A. it focuses on last month`s symptoms

B. scores of moderate symptoms suggest surgical treatment if the patient`s quality of life was poor

C. it has been validated and translated to many languages

D. all of the above

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4

a. small fibrous glands

A. the presence of prostate cancer

B. previous prostatectomy

C. all of the above

D. . Robot-assisted laparoscopic prostatectomy for prostatic adenoma has the following advantage over TURP:

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4

Which statement(s) describe(s) the bladders response to an obstructing prostate?

A. it may develop detrusor instability with irritative LUTS

B. it may develop poor compliance with frequency and urgency symptoms

C. it may develop poor detrusor contractility with obstructive LUTS

D. all of the above

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4

What is true concerning epithelial and stromal cells in BPH?

A. there is an increase in the number of epithelial and stromal cells

B. there is an increase in the size of epithelial and stromal cells

C. in BPH, epithelial to stromal cells ratio is 1:2

D. all of the above

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4

What is true regarding the use of α-blockers and the development of Intraoperative Floppy Iris Syndrome (IFIS)?

A. complicates approximately 0.7% of cataract surgery cases

B. manifests as poor preoperative pupil dilation, iris prolapse, and progressive intraoperative miosis

C. it could persist long after the discontinuation of tamsulosin

D. intraoperative lidocaine reduces its incidence in patients taking α- adrenergic inhibitors

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4

A 50% reduction of prostate size is expected after a 6-month therapy with:

A. alfuzosin

B. silodosin

C. finasteride

D. tamsulosin

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4

An ED patient on low-dose tadalafil develops BPH. What medication should he avoid?

A. tamsulosin

B. alfuzosin

C. doxazosin

D. silodosin

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4

TURP carries an incidence of retrograde ejaculation of:

A. 62 - 78%

B. 48 - 61%

C. 79 - 93%

D. 34 - 47%

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4

Which statement is false regarding TURP syndrome?

A. occurs because of absorption of non-sodium-containing irrigating fluid

B. occurs only on using unipolar TURP

C. results in brain edema due to dilutional hyponatremia

D. positioning the patient in anti-Trendelenburg helps prevent the syndrome

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4

What is (are) the indication(s) of upper urinary tract imaging in men with LUTS?

A. hematuria

B. recurrent urinary tract infection

C. renal insufficiency

D. all of the above

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4

A 55 yrs. male patient with familial BPH, IPSS 9, PSA 23ng/ml, prostate size 31 cc, PVR 54 cc, on watchful waiting management. Next step should be:

A. tamsulosin 0.8 mg

B. reassurance

C. repeat total and free PSA

D. diagnostic cystoscopy

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4

What is true regarding mirabegron, the β3 agonist, in treating BPH?

A. achieves better results when combined with antimuscarinic

B. enhances detrusor contractility resulting in higher Q-max

C. enhance detrusor relaxation during bladder-filling phase

D. increases voiding pressure that poses risk on renal function

What is the correct answer?

4

Which statement best describes the natural history of BPH:

A. worsening of LUTS and BPH over time

B. patients die of other reasons before serious complications occur

C. physically, the space of prostatic fossa limits the gland enlargement

D. ultimately, the gland will degenerate and undergo apoptosis

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4

A BPH patient presents with retention of urine. He is Catheterized. Later, he underwent TURP. When would the highest PSA value be?

A. before catheterization

B. after catheterization and before TURP

C. immediately after TURP

D. 2 weeks after TURP

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4

a. operation cost

A. smaller incisions with a shorter hospital stay

B. lower risk for blood transfusion

C. none of the above

D. . What is the first-line management of uncomplicated LUTS due to large prostate?

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4

What is false concerning bladder and prostate histology in BPH?

A. obstruction results in bladder smooth muscle hypertrophy and myofibroblasts deposition

B. BPH occurs chiefly in the transitional zone and periurethral tissues

C. BPH microscopical changes begin in early thirties

D. histologic findings of chronic prostatitis are common in BPH

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4

In men with obstructive BPH, what will NOT resolve after TURP?

A. bladder trabeculation

B. significant PVR

C. low peak flow rate

D. high IPSS

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4

Smooth muscle tension in the prostate is mediated by which receptors?

A. α1-a

B. α1-b

C. α2-a

D. α2-b

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4

What is false concerning BPH and androgenic hormones?

A. the most potent androgenic hormones in BPH development is DHT

B. type-2 steroid 5 α-reductase, is most commonly found in the prostate

C. castrated individuals before puberty will not develop BPH

D. as a man ages, the number of androgen receptors in the prostate decreases

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4

Transurethral incision of the prostate (TUIP):

A. is only indicated in small prostates

B. complications are related to the amount of lost blood and removed chips

C. is a minimal procedure where no risk of rectal injury or retrograde ejaculation have been reported

D. it entails making 1 or 2 incisions along all prostate lobes except the apical

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4

On treating BPH, which procedure provides the best tissue preservation for pathological examination?

A. TURP

B. TUIP

C. HoLEP

D. HoLRP

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4

as adjuncts therapy in BPH cases?

A. men with storage symptoms

B. men with ED

C. failed combination of α-adrenergic blocker and 5α-reductase inhibitor

D. a & b