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What is the correct answer?

4

The lowest re-treatment rate of BPH is for:

A. TUIP

B. TURP

C. HoLEP

D. HoLRP

Correct Answer :

A. TUIP


operation time was found to be 14 min less in favor of open prostatectomy according to (Naspro et al, 2006).

Related Questions

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4

a. urethral stricture

A. bladder stones

B. BPH

C. prostatitis syndrome

D. . What is (are) the indication(s) of antimuscarinic agents and PDEIs

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4

Open prostatectomy is preferred in treating BPH with:

A. sizable bladder stones

B. Hutch diverticulum

C. a suspicion of cancer

D. a & b

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4

What is false concerning IPSS questionnaire?

A. is specific for prostate symptom

B. is a seven-question, self-administered questionnaire that yields a total score that ranges from 0 to 35

C. a sum of 20 on IPSS scale is severe

D. it covers both voiding and storage symptomatology

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4

A 55 yrs. male patient with familial BPH, IPSS 9, PSA 23ng/ml, prostate size 31 cc, PVR 54 cc, on watchful waiting management. Next step should be:

A. tamsulosin 0.8 mg

B. reassurance

C. repeat total and free PSA

D. diagnostic cystoscopy

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4

What prostatic lobe(s) can be assessed during DRE?

A. anterior

B. median

C. left lateral

D. all of the above

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4

Prostatic nodules palpated on DRE might indicate:

A. tuberculous prostatitis

B. prostatic cancer

C. inspissated prostatic abscess

D. any of the above

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4

To achieve better hemostasis in prostate laser surgery, what is the ideal wavelength that is easily absorbed by hemoglobin?

A. 532 nm

B. 694 nm

C. 755 nm

D. 1064 nm

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4

In BPH patients, which of the following measures reduces PSA value by one-half?

A. 2 weeks after performing prostatic urethral lift

B. 6-month treatment with 5α-reductase inhibitors

C. after placing a stent in the prostatic urethra

D. immediately after removing one-half of the prostate by TURP

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4

The probability of developing acute urinary retention is related to:

A. the neurological status of the patient

B. PVR

C. severity of obstructive LUTS

D. all of the above

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4

a. management of concomitant Hutch diverticulum

A. removing small bladder stones

B. better access to prostatic fossa

C. technically, easier trigonization

D. . When comparing retropubic to suprapubic prostatectomy for removing prostatic adenoma, the former has the advantage of:

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4

BPH patients with severe irritative symptoms or microscopic hematuria should:

A. go for urine cytology testing

B. go for PSA testing

C. go for TRUS

D. use anticholinergic medication

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4

What is the initial response of the detrusor muscle to obstruction?

A. increased intravesical pressure

B. increased detrusor pressure

C. increase collagen deposition in the detrusor

D. detrusor smooth muscle hypertrophy

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4

What is the capsular perforation rate in prostate vaporization surgery?

A. 0.2 1%

B. 1.2 2.1%

C. 2.3 3.4%

D. 3.7 5.6%

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4

What is (are) the possible complication(s) of prostate stents?

A. hematuria and infections

B. migration and encrustation of the stent

C. irritative urinary symptoms and painful ejaculation

D. all of the above

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4

as adjuncts therapy in BPH cases?

A. men with storage symptoms

B. men with ED

C. failed combination of α-adrenergic blocker and 5α-reductase inhibitor

D. a & b

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4

Which statement is false regarding laser enucleation of the Prostate (HoLEP)?

A. provides tissue preservation for pathological examination

B. treats any size of prostatic adenoma

C. follows anatomic planes to remove the prostate in lobes

D. urinary incontinence is a significant drawback after HoLEP

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4

What is true concerning epithelial and stromal cells in BPH?

A. there is an increase in the number of epithelial and stromal cells

B. there is an increase in the size of epithelial and stromal cells

C. in BPH, epithelial to stromal cells ratio is 1:2

D. all of the above

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4

What can NOT be assessed during DRE?

A. sacral cord integrity

B. pelvic hematoma

C. pelvic floor muscle tenderness

D. prostatic median lobe hypertrophy

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4

a. α-adrenergic blocker

A. combination of α-adrenergic blocker and 5α-reductase inhibitor

B. watchful waiting

C. TURP

D. . What is the commonest cause of LUTS in men beyond middle age?

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4

a. lesser chance of post-operative urethral stricture

A. milder postoperative hematuria

B. tension-free bladder closure

C. extra-peritoneal approach

D. . When comparing TURP to open prostatectomy for removing prostatic adenoma, the latter has the following advantages, EXCEPT:

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4

What class(es) of medications decrease(s) IPSS questionnaire points?

A. calcium channel blockers

B. antihistamines

C. antidepressants

D. cold medications containing pseudoephedrine

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4

What is true regarding BPH and androgens?

A. as a man ages, the responsiveness of prostate cells to androgenic stimuli decreases

B. adrenal androgens have no role in BPH development

C. type-1 steroid 5 α-reductase is functionally active in the hair follicle

D. all of the above

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4

c. each centimeter over the normal 2.5-cm prostate urethral length equates

A. an additional 15 g in prostate weight

B. each centimeter over the normal 1.5-cm prostate urethral length equates

C. an additional 5 g in prostate weight

D. . When comparing suprapubic to retropubic prostatectomy for removing prostatic adenoma, the former allows:

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4

TURP syndrome is more likely to occur when:

A. the irrigating fluid is at a pressure exceeding 10 mm Hg

B. the prostate volume is > 45 cc

C. the resection time is > 90 minutes

D. all of the above

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4

What is the likelihood that PSA level in men with acute urinary retention due to urethral stricture will decrease after catheterization?

A. never

B. unlikely

C. likely

D. always

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4

Which statement(s) describe(s) the bladders response to an obstructing prostate?

A. it may develop detrusor instability with irritative LUTS

B. it may develop poor compliance with frequency and urgency symptoms

C. it may develop poor detrusor contractility with obstructive LUTS

D. all of the above

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4

In men with LUTS, which of the following is NOT a compelling indication for upper urinary tract imaging?

A. urolithiasis

B. receiving chemotherapy

C. upper tract surgery

D. painless hematuria

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4

What is false concerning bladder and prostate histology in BPH?

A. obstruction results in bladder smooth muscle hypertrophy and myofibroblasts deposition

B. BPH occurs chiefly in the transitional zone and periurethral tissues

C. BPH microscopical changes begin in early thirties

D. histologic findings of chronic prostatitis are common in BPH

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4

BPH/LUTS patients when present with mild creatinine elevation, are advised to do:

A. total and free PSA

B. renal ultrasonography

C. creatinine clearance

D. uroflowmetry

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4

Transurethral incision of the prostate (TUIP):

A. is only indicated in small prostates

B. complications are related to the amount of lost blood and removed chips

C. is a minimal procedure where no risk of rectal injury or retrograde ejaculation have been reported

D. it entails making 1 or 2 incisions along all prostate lobes except the apical