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Current Affairs January 2024

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4

To achieve better hemostasis in prostate laser surgery, what is the ideal wavelength that is easily absorbed by hemoglobin?

A. 532 nm

B. 694 nm

C. 755 nm

D. 1064 nm

Correct Answer :

A. 532 nm


self-explanatory.

Related Questions

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4

In men with obstructive BPH, what will NOT resolve after TURP?

A. bladder trabeculation

B. significant PVR

C. low peak flow rate

D. high IPSS

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4

What is false concerning the diagnosis of BPH?

A. IPSS cannot be used to establish the diagnosis of BPH/LUTS

B. prostate biopsy is essential in diagnosing BPH and excluding cancers

C. PSA and uroflowmetry help diagnose the condition

D. none of the above

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4

BPH patients with severe irritative symptoms or microscopic hematuria should:

A. go for urine cytology testing

B. go for PSA testing

C. go for TRUS

D. use anticholinergic medication

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4

Prostatic nodules palpated on DRE might indicate:

A. tuberculous prostatitis

B. prostatic cancer

C. inspissated prostatic abscess

D. any of the above

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4

TURP syndrome is more likely to occur when:

A. the irrigating fluid is at a pressure exceeding 10 mm Hg

B. the prostate volume is > 45 cc

C. the resection time is > 90 minutes

D. all of the above

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4

Smooth muscle tension in the prostate is mediated by which receptors?

A. α1-a

B. α1-b

C. α2-a

D. α2-b

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4

In BPH patients, total PSA level correlates to:

A. the glandular component of the prostate

B. the IPSS questionnaire points

C. the PVR

D. the transitional zone volume

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4

What is false concerning IPSS questionnaire?

A. is specific for prostate symptom

B. is a seven-question, self-administered questionnaire that yields a total score that ranges from 0 to 35

C. a sum of 20 on IPSS scale is severe

D. it covers both voiding and storage symptomatology

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4

a. α-adrenergic blocker

A. combination of α-adrenergic blocker and 5α-reductase inhibitor

B. watchful waiting

C. TURP

D. . What is the commonest cause of LUTS in men beyond middle age?

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4

A 55 yrs. male patient with familial BPH, IPSS 9, PSA 23ng/ml, prostate size 31 cc, PVR 54 cc, on watchful waiting management. Next step should be:

A. tamsulosin 0.8 mg

B. reassurance

C. repeat total and free PSA

D. diagnostic cystoscopy

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4

BPH/LUTS patients when present with mild creatinine elevation, are advised to do:

A. total and free PSA

B. renal ultrasonography

C. creatinine clearance

D. uroflowmetry

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4

What is false concerning needle ablation therapy of the prostate (TUNA)?

A. prostate sizes of up to 70 ml can be treated

B. not recommended in patients with metallic artificial hip

C. retreatment rates are lower than for TURP

D. can be performed in an office-based setting

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4

What is false concerning the pathogenesis of BPH?

A. intra-prostatic levels of estrogen decrease in men with BPH

B. stimulation of the adrenergic nervous system results in a dynamic increase in prostatic urethral resistance

C. inflammation may play a role through cytokines to promote cell growth

D. hyperplasia occurs due to an imbalance between cell death and cell proliferation

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4

Transurethral incision of the prostate (TUIP):

A. is only indicated in small prostates

B. complications are related to the amount of lost blood and removed chips

C. is a minimal procedure where no risk of rectal injury or retrograde ejaculation have been reported

D. it entails making 1 or 2 incisions along all prostate lobes except the apical

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4

What drug prevents recurrent gross hematuria secondary to BPH?

A. enoxaparin

B. silodosin

C. finasteride

D. tolterodine

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4

a. management of concomitant Hutch diverticulum

A. removing small bladder stones

B. better access to prostatic fossa

C. technically, easier trigonization

D. . When comparing retropubic to suprapubic prostatectomy for removing prostatic adenoma, the former has the advantage of:

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4

What is the initial response of the detrusor muscle to obstruction?

A. increased intravesical pressure

B. increased detrusor pressure

C. increase collagen deposition in the detrusor

D. detrusor smooth muscle hypertrophy

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4

In BPH patients, which of the following measures reduces PSA value by one-half?

A. 2 weeks after performing prostatic urethral lift

B. 6-month treatment with 5α-reductase inhibitors

C. after placing a stent in the prostatic urethra

D. immediately after removing one-half of the prostate by TURP

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4

The most serious complication of TURP is:

A. damage to the internal sphincter

B. damage to the external sphincter

C. bladder perforation

D. damage to a ureteral orifice

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4

What is false concerning bladder and prostate histology in BPH?

A. obstruction results in bladder smooth muscle hypertrophy and myofibroblasts deposition

B. BPH occurs chiefly in the transitional zone and periurethral tissues

C. BPH microscopical changes begin in early thirties

D. histologic findings of chronic prostatitis are common in BPH

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4

Which statement best describes the natural history of BPH:

A. worsening of LUTS and BPH over time

B. patients die of other reasons before serious complications occur

C. physically, the space of prostatic fossa limits the gland enlargement

D. ultimately, the gland will degenerate and undergo apoptosis

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4

Open prostatectomy is preferred in treating BPH with:

A. sizable bladder stones

B. Hutch diverticulum

C. a suspicion of cancer

D. a & b

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4

What is true regarding mirabegron, the β3 agonist, in treating BPH?

A. achieves better results when combined with antimuscarinic

B. enhances detrusor contractility resulting in higher Q-max

C. enhance detrusor relaxation during bladder-filling phase

D. increases voiding pressure that poses risk on renal function

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4

What statement is true regarding post-void residual of urine (PVR)?

A. nearly all men have PVR of less than 12 ml

B. it predicts the outcome of surgical treatment

C. it correlates well with BPH/LUTS

D. it is diagnostic for bladder outlet obstruction

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4

Which drug reduces the incidence of prostate cancer by 23% with a small increase in high-grade tumor incidence?

A. cetrorelix

B. flutamide

C. dutasteride

D. zanoterone

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4

In men with LUTS, which of the following is NOT a compelling indication for upper urinary tract imaging?

A. urolithiasis

B. receiving chemotherapy

C. upper tract surgery

D. painless hematuria

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4

When comparing HoLEP to open prostatectomy for a 70 g prostatic adenoma removal; what parameter goes in favor of the latter?

A. operation time

B. duration of in-hospital stay

C. amount of blood transfused

D. time to catheter removal

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4

a. small fibrous glands

A. the presence of prostate cancer

B. previous prostatectomy

C. all of the above

D. . Robot-assisted laparoscopic prostatectomy for prostatic adenoma has the following advantage over TURP:

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4

What is the likelihood that PSA level in men with acute urinary retention due to urethral stricture will decrease after catheterization?

A. never

B. unlikely

C. likely

D. always

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4

In BPH, the etiology of acute urinary retention includes:

A. prostatic infarction

B. prostate infection

C. bladder overdistention

D. all of the above