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Current Affairs January 2024

What is the correct answer?

4

Transurethral incision of the prostate (TUIP):

A. is only indicated in small prostates

B. complications are related to the amount of lost blood and removed chips

C. is a minimal procedure where no risk of rectal injury or retrograde ejaculation have been reported

D. it entails making 1 or 2 incisions along all prostate lobes except the apical

Correct Answer :

A. is only indicated in small prostates


is indicated in small prostates < 30 ml.

Related Questions

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4

In BPH patients, total PSA level correlates to:

A. the glandular component of the prostate

B. the IPSS questionnaire points

C. the PVR

D. the transitional zone volume

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4

What is (are) the possible complication(s) of prostate stents?

A. hematuria and infections

B. migration and encrustation of the stent

C. irritative urinary symptoms and painful ejaculation

D. all of the above

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4

On measuring the prostate volume during endoscopy:

A. each centimeter over the normal 2-cm prostate urethral length equates

B. an additional 12 g in prostate weight

C. each centimeter over the normal 2.5-cm prostate urethral length equates

D. an additional 10 g in prostate weight

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4

a. no risk of dilutional hyponatremia

A. operating on patients with multiple bladder diverticula

B. operating on patients who cannot flex their hips and/or knees

C. unfavorable tissue preservation for pathological examination

D. . What is (are) the contraindication(s) to open prostatectomy for prostatic adenoma?

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4

In an 80 yrs. diabetic man on insulin for 35 yrs.; what would be the proper sequence of developing the following obstructing BPH/LUTS?

A. frequency, over-flow incontinence, straining, retention

B. straining, frequency, over-flow incontinence, retention

C. straining, frequency, retention, over-flow incontinence

D. frequency, straining, retention, over-flow incontinence

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4

PSA value has a strong correlation with:

A. IPSS

B. post void residual

C. prostate volume

D. Q-max at uroflowmetry

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4

The probability of developing acute urinary retention is related to:

A. the neurological status of the patient

B. PVR

C. severity of obstructive LUTS

D. all of the above

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4

What can NOT be assessed during DRE?

A. sacral cord integrity

B. pelvic hematoma

C. pelvic floor muscle tenderness

D. prostatic median lobe hypertrophy

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4

On treating BPH, which procedure carries the risk of morcellator injury to the bladder?

A. PVP

B. HoLEP

C. HoLRP

D. TUMT

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4

What is false regarding prostate embolization for BPH?

A. the aim is to occlude the internal iliac vessels

B. there is a considerable radiation risk during the procedure

C. bilateral embolization provides better results

D. eye protection is not required

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4

What is false concerning TURP syndrome?

A. symptoms begin with a serum sodium of less than 120 mEq/L

B. the mortality is 2.7-5.8 %

C. manifestations rely on acute changes in the intravascular volume and plasma solute concentrations

D. the preferred height of irrigating fluid is 60 cm above the patient

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4

What is true regarding the use of α-blockers and the development of Intraoperative Floppy Iris Syndrome (IFIS)?

A. complicates approximately 0.7% of cataract surgery cases

B. manifests as poor preoperative pupil dilation, iris prolapse, and progressive intraoperative miosis

C. it could persist long after the discontinuation of tamsulosin

D. intraoperative lidocaine reduces its incidence in patients taking α- adrenergic inhibitors

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4

a. operation cost

A. smaller incisions with a shorter hospital stay

B. lower risk for blood transfusion

C. none of the above

D. . What is the first-line management of uncomplicated LUTS due to large prostate?

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4

A 50% reduction of prostate size is expected after a 6-month therapy with:

A. alfuzosin

B. silodosin

C. finasteride

D. tamsulosin

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4

What is true regarding BPH and androgens?

A. as a man ages, the responsiveness of prostate cells to androgenic stimuli decreases

B. adrenal androgens have no role in BPH development

C. type-1 steroid 5 α-reductase is functionally active in the hair follicle

D. all of the above

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4

How to manage priapism that occurs during endoscopic surgery?

A. corporal aspiration

B. corpora injection with an α-adrenergic agent

C. corpora injection with an α-adrenergic blocker

D. no treatment required

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4

What is (are) true concerning IPSS questionnaire?

A. it focuses on last month`s symptoms

B. scores of moderate symptoms suggest surgical treatment if the patient`s quality of life was poor

C. it has been validated and translated to many languages

D. all of the above

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4

BPH patients with severe irritative symptoms or microscopic hematuria should:

A. go for urine cytology testing

B. go for PSA testing

C. go for TRUS

D. use anticholinergic medication

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4

In BPH patients, follow up PSA is of value because:

A. it helps predict the response to 5α-reductase inhibitors

B. it monitors LUTS/BPH progression

C. BPH patients are at higher risk of developing prostate cancer

D. a & b

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4

as adjuncts therapy in BPH cases?

A. men with storage symptoms

B. men with ED

C. failed combination of α-adrenergic blocker and 5α-reductase inhibitor

D. a & b

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4

Complications related to obstructive BPH/LUTS include all of the following, EXCEPT:

A. bladder stones

B. prostate cancer

C. renal insufficiency

D. bladder diverticula

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4

TURP syndrome is more likely to occur when:

A. the irrigating fluid is at a pressure exceeding 10 mm Hg

B. the prostate volume is > 45 cc

C. the resection time is > 90 minutes

D. all of the above

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4

In BPH, the etiology of acute urinary retention includes:

A. prostatic infarction

B. prostate infection

C. bladder overdistention

D. all of the above

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4

What is the initial response of the detrusor muscle to obstruction?

A. increased intravesical pressure

B. increased detrusor pressure

C. increase collagen deposition in the detrusor

D. detrusor smooth muscle hypertrophy

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4

a. α-adrenergic blocker

A. combination of α-adrenergic blocker and 5α-reductase inhibitor

B. watchful waiting

C. TURP

D. . What is the commonest cause of LUTS in men beyond middle age?

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4

What is false regarding BPH genetics?

A. BPH is an inheritable and progressive disease

B. familial BPH presents at an older age when compared to sporadic cases

C. approximately 90% of men in their 80s have histologic evidence of BPH

D. BPH tends to be more severe and progressive in black men when compared to whites

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4

What drug prevents recurrent gross hematuria secondary to BPH?

A. enoxaparin

B. silodosin

C. finasteride

D. tolterodine

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4

Preferably, what is the last part of the prostate to be removed while performing TURP?

A. bladder neck

B. apex

C. median lobe

D. para-collecular

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4

On treating BPH, which procedure provides the best tissue preservation for pathological examination?

A. TURP

B. TUIP

C. HoLEP

D. HoLRP

What is the correct answer?

4

The most serious drawback of anticholinergic drugs on BPH patients is:

A. renal insufficiency

B. urinary retention

C. dry mouth

D. painless hematuria