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4

What class(es) of medications decrease(s) IPSS questionnaire points?

A. calcium channel blockers

B. antihistamines

C. antidepressants

D. cold medications containing pseudoephedrine

Correct Answer :

A. calcium channel blockers


calcium channel blockers and β-adrenergic blockers help bladder evacuation and lower IPSS points.

Related Questions

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4

On treating BPH, which procedure provides the best tissue preservation for pathological examination?

A. TURP

B. TUIP

C. HoLEP

D. HoLRP

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4

On measuring the prostate volume during endoscopy:

A. each centimeter over the normal 2-cm prostate urethral length equates

B. an additional 12 g in prostate weight

C. each centimeter over the normal 2.5-cm prostate urethral length equates

D. an additional 10 g in prostate weight

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4

How to manage priapism that occurs during endoscopic surgery?

A. corporal aspiration

B. corpora injection with an α-adrenergic agent

C. corpora injection with an α-adrenergic blocker

D. no treatment required

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4

a. small fibrous glands

A. the presence of prostate cancer

B. previous prostatectomy

C. all of the above

D. . Robot-assisted laparoscopic prostatectomy for prostatic adenoma has the following advantage over TURP:

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4

In BPH patients, which of the following measures reduces PSA value by one-half?

A. 2 weeks after performing prostatic urethral lift

B. 6-month treatment with 5α-reductase inhibitors

C. after placing a stent in the prostatic urethra

D. immediately after removing one-half of the prostate by TURP

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4

What is (are) the favorite criterion (criteria) to prescribe 5α- reductase inhibitors for BPH cases?

A. PSA > 1.5 ng/dL

B. prostate volume > 40 ml

C. IPSS > 19

D. a & b

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4

What is false concerning bladder and prostate histology in BPH?

A. obstruction results in bladder smooth muscle hypertrophy and myofibroblasts deposition

B. BPH occurs chiefly in the transitional zone and periurethral tissues

C. BPH microscopical changes begin in early thirties

D. histologic findings of chronic prostatitis are common in BPH

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4

as adjuncts therapy in BPH cases?

A. men with storage symptoms

B. men with ED

C. failed combination of α-adrenergic blocker and 5α-reductase inhibitor

D. a & b

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4

Which statement is false concerning transurethral microwave therapy (TUMT) for BPH treatment:

A. induces nerve degeneration in the prostate and tissue necrosis

B. frequently results in transient urinary retention

C. frequently leads to erectile dysfunction

D. the high-energy platform is superior to the low-energy with regard to clinical efficacy

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4

What is (are) the indication(s) of upper urinary tract imaging in men with LUTS?

A. hematuria

B. recurrent urinary tract infection

C. renal insufficiency

D. all of the above

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4

What is false concerning needle ablation therapy of the prostate (TUNA)?

A. prostate sizes of up to 70 ml can be treated

B. not recommended in patients with metallic artificial hip

C. retreatment rates are lower than for TURP

D. can be performed in an office-based setting

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4

a. α-adrenergic blocker

A. combination of α-adrenergic blocker and 5α-reductase inhibitor

B. watchful waiting

C. TURP

D. . What is the commonest cause of LUTS in men beyond middle age?

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4

What is the capsular perforation rate in prostate vaporization surgery?

A. 0.2 1%

B. 1.2 2.1%

C. 2.3 3.4%

D. 3.7 5.6%

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4

A 50% reduction of prostate size is expected after a 6-month therapy with:

A. alfuzosin

B. silodosin

C. finasteride

D. tamsulosin

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4

BPH/LUTS patients when present with mild creatinine elevation, are advised to do:

A. total and free PSA

B. renal ultrasonography

C. creatinine clearance

D. uroflowmetry

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4

Which statement(s) describe(s) the bladders response to an obstructing prostate?

A. it may develop detrusor instability with irritative LUTS

B. it may develop poor compliance with frequency and urgency symptoms

C. it may develop poor detrusor contractility with obstructive LUTS

D. all of the above

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4

Which statement best describes the natural history of BPH:

A. worsening of LUTS and BPH over time

B. patients die of other reasons before serious complications occur

C. physically, the space of prostatic fossa limits the gland enlargement

D. ultimately, the gland will degenerate and undergo apoptosis

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4

Preferably, what is the last part of the prostate to be removed while performing TURP?

A. bladder neck

B. apex

C. median lobe

D. para-collecular

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4

What is false concerning TURP syndrome?

A. symptoms begin with a serum sodium of less than 120 mEq/L

B. the mortality is 2.7-5.8 %

C. manifestations rely on acute changes in the intravascular volume and plasma solute concentrations

D. the preferred height of irrigating fluid is 60 cm above the patient

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4

In BPH, the etiology of acute urinary retention includes:

A. prostatic infarction

B. prostate infection

C. bladder overdistention

D. all of the above

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4

a. urethral stricture

A. bladder stones

B. BPH

C. prostatitis syndrome

D. . What is (are) the indication(s) of antimuscarinic agents and PDEIs

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4

a. management of concomitant Hutch diverticulum

A. removing small bladder stones

B. better access to prostatic fossa

C. technically, easier trigonization

D. . When comparing retropubic to suprapubic prostatectomy for removing prostatic adenoma, the former has the advantage of:

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4

a. no risk of dilutional hyponatremia

A. operating on patients with multiple bladder diverticula

B. operating on patients who cannot flex their hips and/or knees

C. unfavorable tissue preservation for pathological examination

D. . What is (are) the contraindication(s) to open prostatectomy for prostatic adenoma?

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4

What is true regarding mirabegron, the β3 agonist, in treating BPH?

A. achieves better results when combined with antimuscarinic

B. enhances detrusor contractility resulting in higher Q-max

C. enhance detrusor relaxation during bladder-filling phase

D. increases voiding pressure that poses risk on renal function

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4

Which statement is false regarding TURP syndrome?

A. occurs because of absorption of non-sodium-containing irrigating fluid

B. occurs only on using unipolar TURP

C. results in brain edema due to dilutional hyponatremia

D. positioning the patient in anti-Trendelenburg helps prevent the syndrome

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4

What is false concerning BPH and androgenic hormones?

A. the most potent androgenic hormones in BPH development is DHT

B. type-2 steroid 5 α-reductase, is most commonly found in the prostate

C. castrated individuals before puberty will not develop BPH

D. as a man ages, the number of androgen receptors in the prostate decreases

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4

Complications related to obstructive BPH/LUTS include all of the following, EXCEPT:

A. bladder stones

B. prostate cancer

C. renal insufficiency

D. bladder diverticula

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4

The most serious complication of TURP is:

A. damage to the internal sphincter

B. damage to the external sphincter

C. bladder perforation

D. damage to a ureteral orifice

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4

On treating BPH, which procedure carries the risk of morcellator injury to the bladder?

A. PVP

B. HoLEP

C. HoLRP

D. TUMT

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4

To achieve better hemostasis in prostate laser surgery, what is the ideal wavelength that is easily absorbed by hemoglobin?

A. 532 nm

B. 694 nm

C. 755 nm

D. 1064 nm