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4

What can NOT be assessed during DRE?

A. sacral cord integrity

B. pelvic hematoma

C. pelvic floor muscle tenderness

D. prostatic median lobe hypertrophy

Correct Answer :

D. prostatic median lobe hypertrophy


median lobe projects into the bladder when enlarges.

Related Questions

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4

What prostatic lobe(s) can be assessed during DRE?

A. anterior

B. median

C. left lateral

D. all of the above

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4

What is the capsular perforation rate in prostate vaporization surgery?

A. 0.2 1%

B. 1.2 2.1%

C. 2.3 3.4%

D. 3.7 5.6%

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4

What is false regarding prostate embolization for BPH?

A. the aim is to occlude the internal iliac vessels

B. there is a considerable radiation risk during the procedure

C. bilateral embolization provides better results

D. eye protection is not required

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4

a. urethral stricture

A. bladder stones

B. BPH

C. prostatitis syndrome

D. . What is (are) the indication(s) of antimuscarinic agents and PDEIs

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4

What statement is true regarding post-void residual of urine (PVR)?

A. nearly all men have PVR of less than 12 ml

B. it predicts the outcome of surgical treatment

C. it correlates well with BPH/LUTS

D. it is diagnostic for bladder outlet obstruction

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4

What is (are) the indication(s) to prescribe α-adrenergic inhibitors for BPH patients?

A. peak flow rate of ≤ 12 mL/sec

B. prostate volume > 40 ml

C. PSA > 1.5 ng/dL

D. b & c

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4

BPH/LUTS patients when present with mild creatinine elevation, are advised to do:

A. total and free PSA

B. renal ultrasonography

C. creatinine clearance

D. uroflowmetry

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4

What is false regarding BPH genetics?

A. BPH is an inheritable and progressive disease

B. familial BPH presents at an older age when compared to sporadic cases

C. approximately 90% of men in their 80s have histologic evidence of BPH

D. BPH tends to be more severe and progressive in black men when compared to whites

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4

Which statement is false regarding laser enucleation of the Prostate (HoLEP)?

A. provides tissue preservation for pathological examination

B. treats any size of prostatic adenoma

C. follows anatomic planes to remove the prostate in lobes

D. urinary incontinence is a significant drawback after HoLEP

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4

What class(es) of medications decrease(s) IPSS questionnaire points?

A. calcium channel blockers

B. antihistamines

C. antidepressants

D. cold medications containing pseudoephedrine

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4

IPSS decreases after successful TURP because:

A. PSA decreases

B. the prostate size decreases

C. the complaints resolve

D. the Q.O.L improves

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4

Which statement best describes the natural history of BPH:

A. worsening of LUTS and BPH over time

B. patients die of other reasons before serious complications occur

C. physically, the space of prostatic fossa limits the gland enlargement

D. ultimately, the gland will degenerate and undergo apoptosis

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4

a. small fibrous glands

A. the presence of prostate cancer

B. previous prostatectomy

C. all of the above

D. . Robot-assisted laparoscopic prostatectomy for prostatic adenoma has the following advantage over TURP:

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4

Which statement is false concerning transurethral microwave therapy (TUMT) for BPH treatment:

A. induces nerve degeneration in the prostate and tissue necrosis

B. frequently results in transient urinary retention

C. frequently leads to erectile dysfunction

D. the high-energy platform is superior to the low-energy with regard to clinical efficacy

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4

How to manage priapism that occurs during endoscopic surgery?

A. corporal aspiration

B. corpora injection with an α-adrenergic agent

C. corpora injection with an α-adrenergic blocker

D. no treatment required

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4

What is false concerning the pathogenesis of BPH?

A. intra-prostatic levels of estrogen decrease in men with BPH

B. stimulation of the adrenergic nervous system results in a dynamic increase in prostatic urethral resistance

C. inflammation may play a role through cytokines to promote cell growth

D. hyperplasia occurs due to an imbalance between cell death and cell proliferation

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4

In men with obstructive BPH, what will NOT resolve after TURP?

A. bladder trabeculation

B. significant PVR

C. low peak flow rate

D. high IPSS

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4

a. management of concomitant Hutch diverticulum

A. removing small bladder stones

B. better access to prostatic fossa

C. technically, easier trigonization

D. . When comparing retropubic to suprapubic prostatectomy for removing prostatic adenoma, the former has the advantage of:

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4

a. no risk of dilutional hyponatremia

A. operating on patients with multiple bladder diverticula

B. operating on patients who cannot flex their hips and/or knees

C. unfavorable tissue preservation for pathological examination

D. . What is (are) the contraindication(s) to open prostatectomy for prostatic adenoma?

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4

What is (are) the favorite criterion (criteria) to prescribe 5α- reductase inhibitors for BPH cases?

A. PSA > 1.5 ng/dL

B. prostate volume > 40 ml

C. IPSS > 19

D. a & b

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4

In BPH, the etiology of acute urinary retention includes:

A. prostatic infarction

B. prostate infection

C. bladder overdistention

D. all of the above

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4

A 50% reduction of prostate size is expected after a 6-month therapy with:

A. alfuzosin

B. silodosin

C. finasteride

D. tamsulosin

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4

Which statement(s) describe(s) the bladders response to an obstructing prostate?

A. it may develop detrusor instability with irritative LUTS

B. it may develop poor compliance with frequency and urgency symptoms

C. it may develop poor detrusor contractility with obstructive LUTS

D. all of the above

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4

What is (are) the indication(s) of upper urinary tract imaging in men with LUTS?

A. hematuria

B. recurrent urinary tract infection

C. renal insufficiency

D. all of the above

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4

Open prostatectomy is preferred in treating BPH with:

A. sizable bladder stones

B. Hutch diverticulum

C. a suspicion of cancer

D. a & b

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4

To achieve better hemostasis in prostate laser surgery, what is the ideal wavelength that is easily absorbed by hemoglobin?

A. 532 nm

B. 694 nm

C. 755 nm

D. 1064 nm

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4

In an 80 yrs. diabetic man on insulin for 35 yrs.; what would be the proper sequence of developing the following obstructing BPH/LUTS?

A. frequency, over-flow incontinence, straining, retention

B. straining, frequency, over-flow incontinence, retention

C. straining, frequency, retention, over-flow incontinence

D. frequency, straining, retention, over-flow incontinence

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4

The most serious drawback of anticholinergic drugs on BPH patients is:

A. renal insufficiency

B. urinary retention

C. dry mouth

D. painless hematuria

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4

What can NOT be assessed during DRE?

A. sacral cord integrity

B. pelvic hematoma

C. pelvic floor muscle tenderness

D. prostatic median lobe hypertrophy

What is the correct answer?

4

The probability of developing acute urinary retention is related to:

A. the neurological status of the patient

B. PVR

C. severity of obstructive LUTS

D. all of the above