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What is the correct answer?

4

Which statement is false regarding laser enucleation of the Prostate (HoLEP)?

A. provides tissue preservation for pathological examination

B. treats any size of prostatic adenoma

C. follows anatomic planes to remove the prostate in lobes

D. urinary incontinence is a significant drawback after HoLEP

Correct Answer :

D. urinary incontinence is a significant drawback after HoLEP


urinary incontinence is unremarkable after HoLEP.

Related Questions

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4

What is false concerning BPH and androgenic hormones?

A. the most potent androgenic hormones in BPH development is DHT

B. type-2 steroid 5 α-reductase, is most commonly found in the prostate

C. castrated individuals before puberty will not develop BPH

D. as a man ages, the number of androgen receptors in the prostate decreases

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4

To achieve better hemostasis in prostate laser surgery, what is the ideal wavelength that is easily absorbed by hemoglobin?

A. 532 nm

B. 694 nm

C. 755 nm

D. 1064 nm

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4

The most serious drawback of anticholinergic drugs on BPH patients is:

A. renal insufficiency

B. urinary retention

C. dry mouth

D. painless hematuria

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4

What is (are) the indication(s) of upper urinary tract imaging in men with LUTS?

A. hematuria

B. recurrent urinary tract infection

C. renal insufficiency

D. all of the above

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4

a. management of concomitant Hutch diverticulum

A. removing small bladder stones

B. better access to prostatic fossa

C. technically, easier trigonization

D. . When comparing retropubic to suprapubic prostatectomy for removing prostatic adenoma, the former has the advantage of:

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4

What is false concerning the pathogenesis of BPH?

A. intra-prostatic levels of estrogen decrease in men with BPH

B. stimulation of the adrenergic nervous system results in a dynamic increase in prostatic urethral resistance

C. inflammation may play a role through cytokines to promote cell growth

D. hyperplasia occurs due to an imbalance between cell death and cell proliferation

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4

Which of the following is NOT classified as a complicated LUTS?

A. LUTS with neurologic disease

B. LUTS with post-void dribble

C. LUTS with suspicious DRE

D. LUTS with hematuria

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4

Which statement best describes the natural history of BPH:

A. worsening of LUTS and BPH over time

B. patients die of other reasons before serious complications occur

C. physically, the space of prostatic fossa limits the gland enlargement

D. ultimately, the gland will degenerate and undergo apoptosis

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4

a. urethral stricture

A. bladder stones

B. BPH

C. prostatitis syndrome

D. . What is (are) the indication(s) of antimuscarinic agents and PDEIs

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4

a. small fibrous glands

A. the presence of prostate cancer

B. previous prostatectomy

C. all of the above

D. . Robot-assisted laparoscopic prostatectomy for prostatic adenoma has the following advantage over TURP:

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4

Anticholinergic medications work best with BPH patients who have:

A. small prostate

B. mainly median lobe hypertrophy

C. history of urinary retention

D. mainly irritative symptoms

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4

Prostatic nodules palpated on DRE might indicate:

A. tuberculous prostatitis

B. prostatic cancer

C. inspissated prostatic abscess

D. any of the above

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4

a. α-adrenergic blocker

A. combination of α-adrenergic blocker and 5α-reductase inhibitor

B. watchful waiting

C. TURP

D. . What is the commonest cause of LUTS in men beyond middle age?

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4

BPH/LUTS patients when present with mild creatinine elevation, are advised to do:

A. total and free PSA

B. renal ultrasonography

C. creatinine clearance

D. uroflowmetry

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4

Which statement(s) describe(s) the bladders response to an obstructing prostate?

A. it may develop detrusor instability with irritative LUTS

B. it may develop poor compliance with frequency and urgency symptoms

C. it may develop poor detrusor contractility with obstructive LUTS

D. all of the above

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4

In BPH patients, follow up PSA is of value because:

A. it helps predict the response to 5α-reductase inhibitors

B. it monitors LUTS/BPH progression

C. BPH patients are at higher risk of developing prostate cancer

D. a & b

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4

What is false regarding BPH genetics?

A. BPH is an inheritable and progressive disease

B. familial BPH presents at an older age when compared to sporadic cases

C. approximately 90% of men in their 80s have histologic evidence of BPH

D. BPH tends to be more severe and progressive in black men when compared to whites

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4

What is true regarding mirabegron, the β3 agonist, in treating BPH?

A. achieves better results when combined with antimuscarinic

B. enhances detrusor contractility resulting in higher Q-max

C. enhance detrusor relaxation during bladder-filling phase

D. increases voiding pressure that poses risk on renal function

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4

What is true concerning epithelial and stromal cells in BPH?

A. there is an increase in the number of epithelial and stromal cells

B. there is an increase in the size of epithelial and stromal cells

C. in BPH, epithelial to stromal cells ratio is 1:2

D. all of the above

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4

In BPH patients, which of the following measures reduces PSA value by one-half?

A. 2 weeks after performing prostatic urethral lift

B. 6-month treatment with 5α-reductase inhibitors

C. after placing a stent in the prostatic urethra

D. immediately after removing one-half of the prostate by TURP

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4

In BPH patients, total PSA level correlates to:

A. the glandular component of the prostate

B. the IPSS questionnaire points

C. the PVR

D. the transitional zone volume

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4

Which statement is false regarding laser enucleation of the Prostate (HoLEP)?

A. provides tissue preservation for pathological examination

B. treats any size of prostatic adenoma

C. follows anatomic planes to remove the prostate in lobes

D. urinary incontinence is a significant drawback after HoLEP

What is the correct answer?

4

What is false regarding BPH symptomatology?

A. the size of the prostate correlates well to the degree of obstruction

B. a decrease of 3 points in IPSS is associated with a subjective perception of improvement

C. median lobe enlargement gives rise to serious obstructive symptoms

D. bladder trabeculation is not specific for an obstructing prostate

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4

What is (are) the possible complication(s) of prostate stents?

A. hematuria and infections

B. migration and encrustation of the stent

C. irritative urinary symptoms and painful ejaculation

D. all of the above

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4

Which statement is false regarding TURP syndrome?

A. occurs because of absorption of non-sodium-containing irrigating fluid

B. occurs only on using unipolar TURP

C. results in brain edema due to dilutional hyponatremia

D. positioning the patient in anti-Trendelenburg helps prevent the syndrome

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4

What is false concerning needle ablation therapy of the prostate (TUNA)?

A. prostate sizes of up to 70 ml can be treated

B. not recommended in patients with metallic artificial hip

C. retreatment rates are lower than for TURP

D. can be performed in an office-based setting

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4

When comparing HoLEP to open prostatectomy for a 70 g prostatic adenoma removal; what parameter goes in favor of the latter?

A. operation time

B. duration of in-hospital stay

C. amount of blood transfused

D. time to catheter removal

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4

What is the initial response of the detrusor muscle to obstruction?

A. increased intravesical pressure

B. increased detrusor pressure

C. increase collagen deposition in the detrusor

D. detrusor smooth muscle hypertrophy

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4

Transurethral incision of the prostate (TUIP):

A. is only indicated in small prostates

B. complications are related to the amount of lost blood and removed chips

C. is a minimal procedure where no risk of rectal injury or retrograde ejaculation have been reported

D. it entails making 1 or 2 incisions along all prostate lobes except the apical

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4

What is (are) the favorite criterion (criteria) to prescribe 5α- reductase inhibitors for BPH cases?

A. PSA > 1.5 ng/dL

B. prostate volume > 40 ml

C. IPSS > 19

D. a & b